COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICAL NURSING
EXAM REVIEW 200+ COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COMPLETE
PN EXIT EXAM PREPARATION RESOURCE
AND NURSING STUDY GUIDE
A client who has been immobile may be weak and dizzy and develop
orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure on rising), so allowing
the client to sit for a few minutes (B) before transferring from the bedside
to the wheelchair provides time for the client to gain equilibrium and allows
dependent blood in the lower extremities to return to the heart. Next,
positioning the legs under the client's center of gravity (A and C) reduces
back strain and stabilizes the client to stand. To ensure a safe transfer for a
client with hemiparesis (unilateral muscle weakness), a transfer belt (D)
provides a secure hold to prevent sudden falls.
When the nurse-manager posts a schedule for volunteers to be on call, one
staff member immediately signs up for all available 7-to-3 day shifts. Other
staff members complain to the charge nurse that they were not permitted
the opportunity to be on call for the day shift. What action should the
nurse-manager implement?
A.Speak privately with the nurse.
B.Hold a staff meeting to discuss this issue.
,C.Review the nurse's current salary.
D.Nominate the nurse for employee of the month. - CORRECT ANSWER -
A
The nurse-manager should speak privately with the nurse (A) to assess the
nurse's motives and to discuss allowing other team members the
opportunity to be on call for the day shift. (B) might become
confrontational. (C) is irrelevant. (D) is not warranted.
A 40-year-old office worker who is at 36 weeks' gestation presents to the
occupational health clinic complaining of a pounding headache, blurry
vision, and swollen ankles. Which intervention should the nurse implement
first?
A.Check the client's blood pressure.
B.Teach her to elevate her feet when sitting.
C.Obtain a 24-hour diet history to evaluate for the intake of salty foods.
D.Assess the fetal heart rate. - CORRECT ANSWER -A
The blood pressure (A) should be assessed first. Preeclampsia is a
multisystem disorder, and women older than 35 years and have chronic
hypertension are at increased risk. Classic signs include headache, visual
changes, edema, recent rapid weight gain, and elevated blood pressure. (B,
C, and D) can be done if the blood pressure is normal.
A client with acute renal failure (ARF) starts to void 4 L/day 2 weeks after
treatment is initiated. Which complication is important for the nurse to
monitor the client for at this time?
A.Diabetes insipidus
B.Hypotension
,C.Hyperkalemia
D.Uremia - CORRECT ANSWER -B
During the transition from oliguria to the diuretic phase of acute renal
failure, the tubule's inability to concentrate the urine causes osmotic
diuresis, which places the client at risk for hypovolemia and hypotension
(B). (A) is related to the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and not
specifically to the kidney function. Because of the excessive fluid loss, the
client is at risk for potassium loss, not (C). (D) is characteristic of chronic
renal failure with multiple body system involvement.
A mother of a 12-year-old boy states that her son is short and she fears that
he will always be shorter than his peers. She tells the nurse that her grown
daughter only grew 2 inches after she was 12 years of age. To provide health
teaching, which question is most important for the nurse to ask this
mother?
A."Is your son's short stature a social embarrassment to him or the family?"
B."What types of foods do both your children eat now and what did they
eat when they were infants?"
C."Did any significant trauma occur with the birth of your son?"
D."Did your daughter also start her menstrual period at 12 years of age?" -
CORRECT ANSWER -D
Girls are expected to mature sexually and grow physically sooner than boys.
Furthermore, girls only grow an average of 2 inches after menses begins
(D). (A) is not appropriate at this time. The mother is worried that
something is wrong with her son physically. (B) has less to do with stature
than growth and development. (C) is not related to growth hormone
deficiencies, which are idiopathic (without known causes).
, The nurse calls the primary health care provider to report the status of a
postsurgical client. Place the statements in the correct SBAR
communication format.
A. "Mr. Jones is experiencing pain of a 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. Vital signs are
B/P 150/88, HR 90, and RR 26, with an O2 sat of 95%."
B. "This is Mary Smith, RN, calling about Mr. Jones in room 325 at
Memorial Hospital."
C. "Mr. Jones had an open cholecystectomy yesterday and reports
inadequate pain control with his current medication regimen since the
surgery."
D. "Would you like to make a change in his pharmacologic regimen?"
A. C, B, A, D
B. B, C, A, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. A, C, D, B - CORRECT ANSWER -B
SBAR:
S = Situation and includes introduction of the nurse and client/setting (B).
B = Background and includes the presenting complaint and relevant history
(C).
A = Assessment and includes current vital signs and other information (A).
R = Recommendations and includes an explanation of why you are calling
or a suggestion about which action should be taken (D).
A client with rhabdomyolysis tells the nurse about falling while going to the
bathroom and lying on the floor for 24 hours before being found. Which
current client finding is indicative of renal complications?