2026/2027 ABFAS Practice Exam | Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions |
Latest 2026 Update
Q: A 45-year-old male sustained a crush-type injury with early soft tissue necrosis to the
left foot.
Radiographs are negative for fracture or dislocation. Which of the following tests would be
most
helpful for determining skin-flap viability?
fluorescein dye study.
distal
plethysmography.
segmental pressure gradients.
indium scan.
Answer:
Rationale: Fluorescein dye studies might not be routinely ordered, but of the
available answer choices, this would provide the best information on soft tissue viability
following a crush injury. Digital plethysmography and segmental pressure gradient would
provide information about macrovascular perfusion, but not microvascular skin-flap tissue
viability. An indium scan is non-specific for skin-flap viability.
Q: A patient presents eight weeks after sustaining a fracture through the talar neck. Which
finding
is a prognostic indicator that the vascular supply is intact?
resorption of subchondral bone of the talar
dome. increased trabecular pattern across the
fracture. increased sclerosis of the talar body.
absence of degenerative arthritis.
Answer:
Resorption or subchondral lucency of the talar dome
usually indicates that there is sufficient vascularity in the talus, often termed Hawkins sign.
Increased sclerosis of the talar body may suggest avascular necrosis. Absence of
degenerative
arthritis and increased trabecular pattern across the fracture are not prognostic findings for
an
intact vascular supply.
, Q: For which condition is a bone stimulator most efficacious?
synovial pseudarthrosis.
hypertrophic
nonunion. fibrous
nonunion.
fibrous malunion.
Answer:
Rationale: Hypertrophic nonunion is the most appropriate answer
Q: choice for a bone stimulator because it is the only non union amongst the available
answer
choices listed that theoretically has sufficient vascularity to heal. A hypertrophic non union
may
be lacking stability or normal axial alignment, but is able to heal at a cellular level. Synovial
pseudoarthrosis, fibrous non union
Answer:
Q: and malunion are all caused by inadequate immobilization and inadequate blood supply
and
may be more limited in its ability to heal.
Answer:
Q: A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is
severely
edematous and ecchymotic. Diagnostic tests show rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments.
What should the treatment consist of at this time?
compression dressing for 24 to 48
hours. open ligament repair.
posterior splint and warm compresses for 24 to 48 hours.
short leg walking cast.
Answer:
Acute soft-tissue ankle injuries), Rationale: Compression dressing
for 24 to 48 hours is the best answer. An open ligament repair is not indicated this early due
to
Latest 2026 Update
Q: A 45-year-old male sustained a crush-type injury with early soft tissue necrosis to the
left foot.
Radiographs are negative for fracture or dislocation. Which of the following tests would be
most
helpful for determining skin-flap viability?
fluorescein dye study.
distal
plethysmography.
segmental pressure gradients.
indium scan.
Answer:
Rationale: Fluorescein dye studies might not be routinely ordered, but of the
available answer choices, this would provide the best information on soft tissue viability
following a crush injury. Digital plethysmography and segmental pressure gradient would
provide information about macrovascular perfusion, but not microvascular skin-flap tissue
viability. An indium scan is non-specific for skin-flap viability.
Q: A patient presents eight weeks after sustaining a fracture through the talar neck. Which
finding
is a prognostic indicator that the vascular supply is intact?
resorption of subchondral bone of the talar
dome. increased trabecular pattern across the
fracture. increased sclerosis of the talar body.
absence of degenerative arthritis.
Answer:
Resorption or subchondral lucency of the talar dome
usually indicates that there is sufficient vascularity in the talus, often termed Hawkins sign.
Increased sclerosis of the talar body may suggest avascular necrosis. Absence of
degenerative
arthritis and increased trabecular pattern across the fracture are not prognostic findings for
an
intact vascular supply.
, Q: For which condition is a bone stimulator most efficacious?
synovial pseudarthrosis.
hypertrophic
nonunion. fibrous
nonunion.
fibrous malunion.
Answer:
Rationale: Hypertrophic nonunion is the most appropriate answer
Q: choice for a bone stimulator because it is the only non union amongst the available
answer
choices listed that theoretically has sufficient vascularity to heal. A hypertrophic non union
may
be lacking stability or normal axial alignment, but is able to heal at a cellular level. Synovial
pseudoarthrosis, fibrous non union
Answer:
Q: and malunion are all caused by inadequate immobilization and inadequate blood supply
and
may be more limited in its ability to heal.
Answer:
Q: A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is
severely
edematous and ecchymotic. Diagnostic tests show rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments.
What should the treatment consist of at this time?
compression dressing for 24 to 48
hours. open ligament repair.
posterior splint and warm compresses for 24 to 48 hours.
short leg walking cast.
Answer:
Acute soft-tissue ankle injuries), Rationale: Compression dressing
for 24 to 48 hours is the best answer. An open ligament repair is not indicated this early due
to
