AP Psychology Exam Review - 200 Questions and Answers
Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And Verified
Subject Area Psychology
Description This comprehensive exam review covers major domains of AP Psychology
including biological bases, cognition, development, social psychology, clinical
psychology, and research methods. Questions require integrative reasoning,
application of classic and contemporary studies, and critical evaluation of
psychological concepts.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 200
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Evaluate and apply major psychological theories to novel scenarios
2. Analyze research methods and interpret statistical findings
3. Synthesize knowledge across biological, cognitive, and social domains
4. Critique ethical considerations in psychological research and practice
Accreditation Designed to meet Ivy League and R1 university standards for advanced
psychology coursework
Page 1
,1. A researcher designs a study to examine the effect of sleep deprivation on working
memory. Participants are randomly assigned to either 4 hours of sleep or 8 hours of
sleep for three consecutive nights. Performance on an n-back task is measured.
Which statistical test is most appropriate to analyze the difference between the two
groups?
Answer: Independent samples t-test
The independent samples t-test compares means between two independent groups
(sleep-deprived vs. control) on a continuous dependent variable (n-back performance).
Chi-square is for categorical data, correlation for associations, and repeated measures
ANOVA would be used if the same participants were measured multiple times.
2. A patient with damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) shows
impaired decision-making but intact performance on standard IQ tests. Which
behavioral pattern is most consistent with this lesion?
Answer: Deficits in somatic marker-guided decisions
The somatic marker hypothesis (Damasio) posits that vmPFC is crucial for integrating
emotional signals into decision-making. Patients with vmPFC damage fail to generate
anticipatory skin conductance responses to risky choices, leading to poor real-world
decisions despite normal intellect. Option A is opposite (they show reduced reactivity),
B is associated with fusiform gyrus, D with Wernicke's area.
3. In a study of memory consolidation, participants learn a list of words and then
undergo either slow-wave sleep (SWS) or rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
deprivation. Which result would support the dual-process hypothesis of memory
consolidation?
Answer: SWS deprivation impairs recall of neutral words, REM deprivation
impairs emotional words
The dual-process hypothesis posits that SWS preferentially consolidates declarative
(neutral) memories, while REM sleep consolidates emotional memories. Thus, SWS
deprivation would impair neutral word recall, and REM deprivation would impair
emotional word recall. Option A reverses the roles, and C/D contradict the hypothesis.
Page 2
,4. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of 'preparedness' in classical
conditioning?
Answer: A person develops a phobia of snakes after a single negative encounter
Preparedness (Seligman) refers to an innate tendency to easily associate certain stimuli
with certain outcomes due to evolutionary significance. Phobias of snakes or spiders are
acquired quickly and resist extinction because humans are biologically prepared to fear
these threats. Option A is standard conditioning, C is operant, D is observational
learning.
5. A researcher finds a correlation of r = -0.72 between hours of television watched
per week and scores on a reading comprehension test. Which of the following is the
most appropriate interpretation?
Answer: Increased television viewing is associated with lower reading
comprehension, but causality cannot be determined
Correlation does not imply causation; the observed negative association could be due to
a third variable (e.g., socioeconomic status). Option A incorrectly assumes causation.
Option C misinterprets the direction (negative means as one increases, the other
decreases). Option D is wrong because the magnitude (0.72) indicates a strong
relationship regardless of sign.
6. According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, which conflict is most likely to be
central for a young adult who is struggling to form intimate relationships?
Answer: Intimacy vs. Isolation
Erikson's stage for young adulthood (roughly 20-40 years) is Intimacy vs. Isolation,
where the primary challenge is forming deep, committed relationships. Difficulty in this
area leads to isolation. Options A, B, and C correspond to earlier stages (infancy,
toddlerhood, adolescence respectively).
Page 3
, 7. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) experiences intrusive
thoughts about contamination and engages in excessive hand washing. According to
the cognitive-behavioral model, which factor most directly maintains the hand
washing behavior?
Answer: Negative reinforcement from reduced anxiety
Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior (hand washing) removes an aversive
stimulus (anxiety about contamination), thereby increasing the likelihood of the
behavior in the future. Option A (positive reinforcement) would involve adding a
pleasant stimulus, which is not the case. Social disapproval (C) would decrease
behavior, and extinction (D) would occur if the behavior no longer reduced anxiety.
8. In Milgram's obedience studies, which of the following variables was found to
significantly decrease the rate of full obedience (administering the highest shock)?
Answer: The experimenter gave orders over the telephone
Milgram found that when the experimenter was remote (giving orders by phone),
obedience dropped to about 20.5% (compared to 65% in the baseline). Proximity of the
learner (B) and forceful contact (C) actually increased obedience. A prestigious setting
(A) also increased obedience.
9. A patient with schizophrenia shows flat affect, alogia, and avolition. Which class
of antipsychotic medications is most appropriate as first-line treatment for these
symptoms?
Answer: Second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine)
The symptoms described are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Second-generation
antipsychotics (SGAs) are more effective than first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs)
for negative symptoms and have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Mood
stabilizers and benzodiazepines are not first-line for negative symptoms.
Page 4
Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And Verified
Subject Area Psychology
Description This comprehensive exam review covers major domains of AP Psychology
including biological bases, cognition, development, social psychology, clinical
psychology, and research methods. Questions require integrative reasoning,
application of classic and contemporary studies, and critical evaluation of
psychological concepts.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 200
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Evaluate and apply major psychological theories to novel scenarios
2. Analyze research methods and interpret statistical findings
3. Synthesize knowledge across biological, cognitive, and social domains
4. Critique ethical considerations in psychological research and practice
Accreditation Designed to meet Ivy League and R1 university standards for advanced
psychology coursework
Page 1
,1. A researcher designs a study to examine the effect of sleep deprivation on working
memory. Participants are randomly assigned to either 4 hours of sleep or 8 hours of
sleep for three consecutive nights. Performance on an n-back task is measured.
Which statistical test is most appropriate to analyze the difference between the two
groups?
Answer: Independent samples t-test
The independent samples t-test compares means between two independent groups
(sleep-deprived vs. control) on a continuous dependent variable (n-back performance).
Chi-square is for categorical data, correlation for associations, and repeated measures
ANOVA would be used if the same participants were measured multiple times.
2. A patient with damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) shows
impaired decision-making but intact performance on standard IQ tests. Which
behavioral pattern is most consistent with this lesion?
Answer: Deficits in somatic marker-guided decisions
The somatic marker hypothesis (Damasio) posits that vmPFC is crucial for integrating
emotional signals into decision-making. Patients with vmPFC damage fail to generate
anticipatory skin conductance responses to risky choices, leading to poor real-world
decisions despite normal intellect. Option A is opposite (they show reduced reactivity),
B is associated with fusiform gyrus, D with Wernicke's area.
3. In a study of memory consolidation, participants learn a list of words and then
undergo either slow-wave sleep (SWS) or rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
deprivation. Which result would support the dual-process hypothesis of memory
consolidation?
Answer: SWS deprivation impairs recall of neutral words, REM deprivation
impairs emotional words
The dual-process hypothesis posits that SWS preferentially consolidates declarative
(neutral) memories, while REM sleep consolidates emotional memories. Thus, SWS
deprivation would impair neutral word recall, and REM deprivation would impair
emotional word recall. Option A reverses the roles, and C/D contradict the hypothesis.
Page 2
,4. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of 'preparedness' in classical
conditioning?
Answer: A person develops a phobia of snakes after a single negative encounter
Preparedness (Seligman) refers to an innate tendency to easily associate certain stimuli
with certain outcomes due to evolutionary significance. Phobias of snakes or spiders are
acquired quickly and resist extinction because humans are biologically prepared to fear
these threats. Option A is standard conditioning, C is operant, D is observational
learning.
5. A researcher finds a correlation of r = -0.72 between hours of television watched
per week and scores on a reading comprehension test. Which of the following is the
most appropriate interpretation?
Answer: Increased television viewing is associated with lower reading
comprehension, but causality cannot be determined
Correlation does not imply causation; the observed negative association could be due to
a third variable (e.g., socioeconomic status). Option A incorrectly assumes causation.
Option C misinterprets the direction (negative means as one increases, the other
decreases). Option D is wrong because the magnitude (0.72) indicates a strong
relationship regardless of sign.
6. According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, which conflict is most likely to be
central for a young adult who is struggling to form intimate relationships?
Answer: Intimacy vs. Isolation
Erikson's stage for young adulthood (roughly 20-40 years) is Intimacy vs. Isolation,
where the primary challenge is forming deep, committed relationships. Difficulty in this
area leads to isolation. Options A, B, and C correspond to earlier stages (infancy,
toddlerhood, adolescence respectively).
Page 3
, 7. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) experiences intrusive
thoughts about contamination and engages in excessive hand washing. According to
the cognitive-behavioral model, which factor most directly maintains the hand
washing behavior?
Answer: Negative reinforcement from reduced anxiety
Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior (hand washing) removes an aversive
stimulus (anxiety about contamination), thereby increasing the likelihood of the
behavior in the future. Option A (positive reinforcement) would involve adding a
pleasant stimulus, which is not the case. Social disapproval (C) would decrease
behavior, and extinction (D) would occur if the behavior no longer reduced anxiety.
8. In Milgram's obedience studies, which of the following variables was found to
significantly decrease the rate of full obedience (administering the highest shock)?
Answer: The experimenter gave orders over the telephone
Milgram found that when the experimenter was remote (giving orders by phone),
obedience dropped to about 20.5% (compared to 65% in the baseline). Proximity of the
learner (B) and forceful contact (C) actually increased obedience. A prestigious setting
(A) also increased obedience.
9. A patient with schizophrenia shows flat affect, alogia, and avolition. Which class
of antipsychotic medications is most appropriate as first-line treatment for these
symptoms?
Answer: Second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine)
The symptoms described are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Second-generation
antipsychotics (SGAs) are more effective than first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs)
for negative symptoms and have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Mood
stabilizers and benzodiazepines are not first-line for negative symptoms.
Page 4
