Chamberlain University NR-293 Pharmacology Final Exam (pdf) |
2026/2027 | Pharmacology Q&A |
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the intravenous route.
The nurse understands that the primary advantage of this route is:
A) It allows for slow, sustained absorption of the medication
B) It provides the fastest onset of action by delivering the drug directly into
the bloodstream
C) It is the safest route for administering medications to older adults
D) It avoids the first-pass effect and is less invasive than other routes
Correct Answer: It provides the fastest onset of action by delivering the drug
directly into the bloodstream
Rationale: Intravenous (IV) administration delivers the drug directly into the
bloodstream, resulting in the fastest onset of action among all routes. This is
because the drug bypasses absorption barriers and is immediately available
for distribution to target tissues. While IV administration does avoid the first-
pass effect, it is the most invasive route, not the least.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about a medication that is a substrate of the
cytochrome P450 3A4 enzyme. The client asks what would happen if they
started taking a CYP3A4 inhibitor. Which of the following responses by the
nurse is correct?
A) "The medication will be metabolized more quickly, and you may need a
higher dose."
B) "There will be no change in how the medication works."
C) "The medication levels may increase, leading to a higher risk of side
effects or toxicity."
D) "The medication will be excreted more rapidly by the kidneys."
,Correct Answer: "The medication levels may increase, leading to a higher risk
of side effects or toxicity."
Rationale: A CYP3A4 inhibitor reduces the metabolic activity of the enzyme,
leading to decreased metabolism of substrate drugs. This results in increased
plasma levels of the substrate drug, which can lead to enhanced therapeutic
effects or, more commonly, toxicity. Common CYP3A4 inhibitors include
ketoconazole, erythromycin, and grapefruit juice.
3. Which of the following best describes the study of pharmacodynamics?
A) The study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes
drugs
B) The study of what the drug does to the body, including its mechanism of
action
C) The study of the clinical use of drugs to prevent and treat disease
D) The study of how genetic factors influence drug response
Correct Answer: The study of what the drug does to the body, including its
mechanism of action
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is the study of what the drug does to the
body, encompassing the drug's mechanism of action, receptor binding, and
the resulting therapeutic and adverse effects. This is in contrast to
pharmacokinetics, which is the study of what the body does to the drug
(ADME).
4. A client is prescribed an opioid analgesic for postoperative pain. Which of
the following adverse effects is the nurse's priority to monitor?
A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Respiratory depression
,D) Urinary retention
Correct Answer: Respiratory depression
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most life-threatening adverse effect
of opioid analgesics. The nurse's priority is to monitor the client's respiratory
rate and depth frequently to detect early signs of respiratory depression.
Constipation, nausea, and urinary retention are common but not immediately
life-threatening.
5. A client is prescribed gentamicin. The nurse should monitor the client for
which of the following serious adverse effects?
A) Hepatotoxicity and cardiotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C) Hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
D) Bone marrow suppression and bleeding
Correct Answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Rationale: Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known to cause
nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss and balance
issues). Monitoring renal function (BUN, creatinine) and hearing is essential.
Peak and trough levels should also be monitored to ensure therapeutic
dosing and minimize toxicity.
6. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values
should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A) aPTT
B) Platelet count
C) PT/INR
, D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: PT/INR
Rationale: Warfarin is monitored using the prothrombin time (PT) and
international normalized ratio (INR). The therapeutic range for most
indications is an INR of 2 to 3. aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy.
7. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for
acute angina. Which of the following instructions is correct?
A) "Swallow the tablet whole with a full glass of water."
B) "Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve."
C) "Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing."
D) "Apply the tablet to your chest wall."
Correct Answer: "Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve."
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered by placing the tablet
under the tongue and allowing it to dissolve for rapid absorption into the
bloodstream. This route provides fast relief for acute angina. Swallowing,
chewing, or applying it to the chest would not provide the intended rapid
effect.
8. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following
is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?
A) Stimulates insulin release from the pancreas
B) Improves insulin sensitivity and decreases hepatic glucose production
C) Slows the absorption of carbohydrates from the intestine
D) Increases the excretion of glucose in the urine
2026/2027 | Pharmacology Q&A |
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the intravenous route.
The nurse understands that the primary advantage of this route is:
A) It allows for slow, sustained absorption of the medication
B) It provides the fastest onset of action by delivering the drug directly into
the bloodstream
C) It is the safest route for administering medications to older adults
D) It avoids the first-pass effect and is less invasive than other routes
Correct Answer: It provides the fastest onset of action by delivering the drug
directly into the bloodstream
Rationale: Intravenous (IV) administration delivers the drug directly into the
bloodstream, resulting in the fastest onset of action among all routes. This is
because the drug bypasses absorption barriers and is immediately available
for distribution to target tissues. While IV administration does avoid the first-
pass effect, it is the most invasive route, not the least.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about a medication that is a substrate of the
cytochrome P450 3A4 enzyme. The client asks what would happen if they
started taking a CYP3A4 inhibitor. Which of the following responses by the
nurse is correct?
A) "The medication will be metabolized more quickly, and you may need a
higher dose."
B) "There will be no change in how the medication works."
C) "The medication levels may increase, leading to a higher risk of side
effects or toxicity."
D) "The medication will be excreted more rapidly by the kidneys."
,Correct Answer: "The medication levels may increase, leading to a higher risk
of side effects or toxicity."
Rationale: A CYP3A4 inhibitor reduces the metabolic activity of the enzyme,
leading to decreased metabolism of substrate drugs. This results in increased
plasma levels of the substrate drug, which can lead to enhanced therapeutic
effects or, more commonly, toxicity. Common CYP3A4 inhibitors include
ketoconazole, erythromycin, and grapefruit juice.
3. Which of the following best describes the study of pharmacodynamics?
A) The study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes
drugs
B) The study of what the drug does to the body, including its mechanism of
action
C) The study of the clinical use of drugs to prevent and treat disease
D) The study of how genetic factors influence drug response
Correct Answer: The study of what the drug does to the body, including its
mechanism of action
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is the study of what the drug does to the
body, encompassing the drug's mechanism of action, receptor binding, and
the resulting therapeutic and adverse effects. This is in contrast to
pharmacokinetics, which is the study of what the body does to the drug
(ADME).
4. A client is prescribed an opioid analgesic for postoperative pain. Which of
the following adverse effects is the nurse's priority to monitor?
A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Respiratory depression
,D) Urinary retention
Correct Answer: Respiratory depression
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most life-threatening adverse effect
of opioid analgesics. The nurse's priority is to monitor the client's respiratory
rate and depth frequently to detect early signs of respiratory depression.
Constipation, nausea, and urinary retention are common but not immediately
life-threatening.
5. A client is prescribed gentamicin. The nurse should monitor the client for
which of the following serious adverse effects?
A) Hepatotoxicity and cardiotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C) Hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
D) Bone marrow suppression and bleeding
Correct Answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Rationale: Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known to cause
nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss and balance
issues). Monitoring renal function (BUN, creatinine) and hearing is essential.
Peak and trough levels should also be monitored to ensure therapeutic
dosing and minimize toxicity.
6. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values
should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A) aPTT
B) Platelet count
C) PT/INR
, D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: PT/INR
Rationale: Warfarin is monitored using the prothrombin time (PT) and
international normalized ratio (INR). The therapeutic range for most
indications is an INR of 2 to 3. aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy.
7. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for
acute angina. Which of the following instructions is correct?
A) "Swallow the tablet whole with a full glass of water."
B) "Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve."
C) "Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing."
D) "Apply the tablet to your chest wall."
Correct Answer: "Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve."
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered by placing the tablet
under the tongue and allowing it to dissolve for rapid absorption into the
bloodstream. This route provides fast relief for acute angina. Swallowing,
chewing, or applying it to the chest would not provide the intended rapid
effect.
8. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following
is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?
A) Stimulates insulin release from the pancreas
B) Improves insulin sensitivity and decreases hepatic glucose production
C) Slows the absorption of carbohydrates from the intestine
D) Increases the excretion of glucose in the urine
