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NUR 220 Exam 1 Study Questions With 100% Verified Answers Pass Guaranteed

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"You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication." - correct answers A patient who wears contact lenses is to be placed on rifampin for tuberculosis therapy. What should the nurse tell the patient? "Only wear your contact lenses during the day and take them out in the evening before bed." "You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication." "The physician can give you eye drops to prevent any problems." "There are no significant problems with wearing contact lenses." 6-12 months - correct answers The nurse is educating a patient who will be started on an antituberculosis medication regimen. The patient asks the nurse, "How long will I have to be on these medications?" What should the nurse tell the patient? 3 months 3 to 5 months 6 to 12 months 13 to 18 months 6 to 12 months - correct answers After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against tuberculosis. The client's daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy? 3 to 5 days 1 to 3 weeks 2 to 4 months 6 to 12 months Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact - correct answers A recent immigrant is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement with this client? Client teaching about the cause of TB Reviewing the risk factors for TB Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact Client teaching about the importance of TB testing Negative - correct answers A nurse reading a chart notes that the client had a Mantoux skin test result with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result? Negative Positive Borderline Uncertain Wearing a disposable particulate respirator that fits snugly around the face - correct answers A client is admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis (TB). What intervention should the nurse include in the client's care plan? Wearing a disposable particulate respirator that fits snugly around the face Instructing the client to wear a mask at all times Wearing a gown and gloves when providing direct care Keeping the door to the client's room open to observe the client HIV encephalopathy - correct answers A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is brought to the clinic by a family member. The family member tells the nurse the client has become forgetful, with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms? Distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP) Candidiasis HIV encephalopathy Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. - correct answers A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a: p24 antigen test for confirmation of diagnosis. Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. polymerase chain reaction test for confirmation of diagnosis. T4-cell count for confirmation of diagnosis. "The client may have cryptococcal meningitis and will need to be evaluated by the health care provider." - correct answers The nurse receives a phone call at the clinic from the family of a client with AIDS. They state that the client started "acting funny" and reported headache, tiredness, and a stiff neck. Checking the temperature resulted in a fever of 103.2°F. What should the nurse inform the family member? "The client probably has a case of the flu and you should give acetaminophen." "The client may have cryptococcal meningitis and will need to be evaluated by the health care provider." "This is one of the side effects from antiretroviral therapy and will require changing the medication." "The client probably has pneumocystis pneumonia and will need to be evaluated by the health care provider." TMP-SMZ - correct answers A client is diagnosed with pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). What medication does the nurse anticipate educating the client about for treatment? TMP-SMZ Cephalexin Azithromycin Garamycin Pneumocystis pneumonia - correct answers The nurse completes a history and physical assessment on a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) who was admitted to the hospital with respiratory complications. The nurse knows to assess for what common infection (80% occurrence) in persons with AIDS? Cytomegalovirus Legionnaire's disease Mycobacterium tuberculosis Pneumocystis pneumonia Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) - correct answers Which blood test confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV? Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) p24 antigen Reverse transcriptase Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) biopsy - correct answers Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through skin scraping. biopsy. visual assessment. computed tomography. Greater than 500/mm3 - correct answers The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse notes that the client is classified as HIV asymptomatic based on which CD4+ T lymphocyte count? Less than 200/mm3 Between 200 to 350/mm3 Between 350 to 499/mm3 Greater than 500/mm3 Hypokalemia - correct answers A client who is HIV positive is experiencing severe diarrhea. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to find? Urine specific gravity of 1.010 Hypernatremia Hypokalemia Proteinuria Side effects of drug therapy - correct answers The nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Part of this client's teaching plan is educating the client about his or her medications. What is essential for the nurse to include in the teaching of this client regarding medications? The use of condoms What vaccinations to have Side effects of drug therapy The action of each antiretroviral drug Follow the same sexual precautions as someone who has been diagnosed with AIDS. - correct answers A healthcare worker has been exposed to the blood of an HIV-positive client and is awaiting the results of an HIV test. In the meantime, what precautions must the healthcare worker take to prevent the spread of infection? Limit interactions with people who are not HIV infected. Limit interactions with people who are already HIV infected. Follow the same sexual precautions as someone who has been diagnosed with AIDS. Quit their job and get admitted to a hospital or a cancer treatment center. AIDS dementia complex (ADC) - correct answers A client with AIDS has become forgetful with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms? distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP) candidiasis AIDS dementia complex (ADC) cytomegalovirus (CMV) semen breast milk blood vaginal secretions - correct answers The nurse is talking with a group of teens about transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What body fluids does the nurse inform them will transmit the virus? Select all that apply. semen urine breast milk blood vaginal secretions Report the incident to the supervisor. - correct answers The nurse administers an injection to a client with AIDS. When finished, the nurse attempts to recap the needle and sustains a needlestick to the finger. What is the priority action by the nurse? Obtain counseling. Call the lab to draw the nurse's blood. Fill out a risk management report. Report the incident to the supervisor. Candidiasis - correct answers A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) informs the nurse of difficulty eating and swallowing, and shows the nurse white patches in the mouth. What problem related to AIDS does the nurse understand the client has developed? MAC Wasting syndrome Kaposi's sarcoma Candidiasis pancreatitis, hepatitis SOB, fever, cough, NVD Wasting - correct answers HIV Manifestations include: Pnemocytosis Pneumonia (PCP) Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC) TB AIDS related lymphoma (hodgkins or non). - correct answers Common HIV diseases hepatoxicity, nephrotxicity, osteopenia, high CVD, high MI, insulin resistance, lipodystrophy, loss of fat on face, lipohypertrophy - correct answers Side effects from ART include PCR HIV blood testing, then if positive they complete the more expensive western blot test. Polymerase Chain Reaction 1) antigen/antibodies first Serological testing algorthisms (STARHS )- tells if infection is new or old 2) Antibody test (if positive, do RNA test) 3) RNA tests (NAT)- Detects HIV 4) Antibody diff - correct answers HIV diagnostic tests Stage 1-500 cells/mEq/L or more, 29 or more CD4. Stage 2- 200-499 cells/mEq/L, CD4 14-28 Stage 3-less than 200 cell/mEq/L, CD4 less than 14 - correct answers Stages of HIV (numbers) TMP-SMX with Prednisone for 21 days - correct answers Stage 3 HIV patients should be given chemoprophylaxis which includes this medication Steven Johnson Leukopenia Hepatitis Thrombocyctopenia Azotemia Hyperkalemia - correct answers Adverse reactions to TMP SMX medication is Clarithromycin (Biaxin) or Azithromycin (Zithromax) with Ethambutol - correct answers Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is treated with Amphotericin B with Diflucan Then Flucanazole - correct answers Cryptococcal meningitis treatment anaphylaxis, kidney and hepatic impairment, altered electrolytes - correct answers Cryptococcal Meningitis treatment side effects causes blindness - correct answers Cytomegalovirus (CMV) antivirals bone marrow suppression, neutropenia, hepatitis, renal toxicity, seizures. - correct answers Treatment for cytomegalovirus and side effects Suppress virus and restore immune function to prevent HIV transmission. Viral load must be less than diagnosis amount - correct answers HIV therapy ART Goal 1) Nucleoside/Nucleotic Reverse Transcriptase Inhibator 2) Non-Nucleoside/Nucleotic Reverse Transcriptase Inhibator 3) Protease inhibator 4) Fusion inhibator 5) CCR5 antagonist 6) Intergrine strenal transfer inhibator 7) Post-cobistat and ritonavir to increase ART effect - correct answers Seven ART drugs can occur with AT therapy when immune system is restored. S/S fever, respi, abdominal issues, opportunistic infections TX: cortisone - correct answers IRIS (Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome) local therapy, chemo - correct answers Medical management of HIV: Kaposi sarcoma stem cell trans and chemo - correct answers Medical management of HIV: Lymphoma CBT Prozac Tofranil - correct answers Medical management of HIV: Depression Megace to help with weight gain Marinol to get rid of NV TPN as last resort - correct answers Medical management of HIV: Nutrition - correct answers TB precautions RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) - correct answers TB Drugs Give RIPE RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) with b6 for 8 weeks Then give INH and rifamptin for 5-7 months Monitor liver enzymes, BUN, creatinine - correct answers TB drug therapy 10-20 mg/dL - correct answers BUN normal range 0.6-1.2 mg/dL - correct answers Normal Creatinine prevent nerve problems from isoniazid - correct answers Vitamin B6 is given with TB therapy to Have them avoid tyramine food and alcohol - correct answers Nursing considerations for INH Watch out for orange red color to sweat and secretions. Use with cautions in olds and renal disease - correct answers Nursing considerations for Priftin do vision checks before starting therapy & monthly thereafter Bacteriostatic - correct answers Nursing considerations for ethambutol -cough, hypoptysis -low-grade fever with night sweats -anorexia, weight loss -malaise, fatigue - correct answers Manifestations of TB altered mental status, unusual behavior, fever, anorexia, weight loss - correct answers Older adult considerations for TB breath sounds wheeze, crackles, diminished - correct answers Physical assessment for TB a palpable vibration from the spoken voice felt over the chest wall In TB, not present - correct answers fremitus A change in vocal resonance in the presence of a lung consolidation condition in which the transmission of the "eee" sound becomes a nasal "ay" sound. Happens in TB - correct answers Egophony 4mm = neg 5-10mm = sensitive or HIV+ 10mm+ = positive - correct answers PPD test results chest xray, sputum sample, blood test Lesions in upper lung lobes - correct answers If a patient tests positive for PPD blood test alternative to PPD Perferred for BCG patients Greater specificity (fewer false positives) - correct answers Quantiferon TB gold will say if TB exists and will not interfer BCG vaccine - correct answers T spot TB test Oral fecal incubation: 4-6weeks Ill for 4-8 weeks low mortality manifests in flu like symptoms, fever, dark urin, liver enlargement - correct answers Hepatitis A Preicteric/prodomal: weight loss, fatigue, fever, dark urine, clay stools Icteric/clinical jaundice: big liver, abdomonal pain, jaundice. Posticteric: mild flu symptoms, fever, normal liver size, healing - correct answers Three Phases of Hepatitis A IGM - correct answers Hep A is identified with blood spread, given to baby Long incubation 1-6 months - correct answers Hepatitis B insidious and variable, like HAV, loss of appetite, dyspepsia, abdominal pan, generalized aching, malaise, weakness, maybe jaundice - correct answers Hepatitis B manifestations HBcAG - correct answers Hepatitis B identified mild symptoms inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis C virus (HCV), which is transmitted by exposure to infected blood; this strain is rarely contracted sexually - correct answers Hepatitis C by Serum antibody assay - correct answers Hepatitis C identified Depends on hepatitis B for replication IGM or IGG 30-150 days - correct answers Hepatitis D A virus spread via fecal-oral transmission (contaminated water) especially in developing countries 15-65 days IGM or IGG - correct answers Hepatitis E 7-7.5 g/dL - correct answers Total serum protein 3.5-5.5 g/dL - correct answers serum albumin 0-35 - correct answers AST level 10-40 U/L - correct answers ALT level 1.0 mg/dL - correct answers Bilirubin level 60-70 seconds - correct answers PTT level 4,000-11,000 - correct answers WBC level HIGH - correct answers In hepatitis AST and ALT will be high - correct answers in hepatitis bilirubin will be high - correct answers in hepatitis PTT will be low, neutropenia - correct answers in hepatitis WBC 1) overraction/hypersensitive 2) Incompetency- immuno defienct from aids 3) autoimmune disorder- Lupus - correct answers Three types of hypersensitivities Antibody mediated/hummoral medication Cell mediatied/Tcells - correct answers Immune responses specialized T cells destroy infected host cells - correct answers cell-mediated immune response Immunity that results from the presence of antibodies in blood and lymph. - correct answers antibody-mediated immunity killer t cells- carry CD8 antigen, attack malignant cells, they reject organs Regulator cells including: Helper T cells- carry CD4 innitate immune response Suppressor T cells- carry CD8, stop immune response - correct answers Types of t cells causes tissue damage involve immediate reaction after prior sensization includes systemic reaction 1, 2, 3 - correct answers antigen antibody interaction allegoric reaction w/ IGE Mast cell and basophil factors released serious reaction S/S hives, SOB, rash to anphalaxisis - correct answers Type 1 immune response IGG or IGM Complement cascade systems- macrophage, eat damaged cells Antibodies formed - correct answers Type 2 immune response IGG or IGM like strep throat - correct answers Type 3 delayed reaction antigen lympocyte reaction PPD reaction for TB - correct answers Type 4 immune response check WBC and diff, esinophil will be high, neutrophil low - correct answers When reviewing an allergic reaction Radioallergosorbent blood test that measures the amount of IgE produced each time the blood is mixed with a specific allergen - correct answers RAST should be neg (circulating antibodies) - correct answers indirect combs test should be neg (on RBCs) - correct answers direct combs test shows how well complement system works - correct answers Immoncomplex assay cromolyn- blocks histamine glucocortosteiod- heps with inflammation and pain IV Epi - correct answers Drugs for allergic reaction Passive from milk in baby Active in learning resistence from killing disease - correct answers Cellular lymphocytes speciica antigens natural include Passive: injection of antibodies Active: Immunization - correct answers Humoral antibodies for specific antigens (Artifical) headache, dizziness, paraesthesia, feeling of doom - correct answers Chemical manifestation of anaphylaxis: Neuro prutis, angioedma, erythema - correct answers Chemical manifestation of anaphylaxis: skin horseness, coughing, narrowed airway, wheezing, stridor, dyspena - correct answers Chemical manifestation of anaphylaxis: respi hypotension, dysymia, tachycardia, cardiac arrest - correct answers Chemical manifestation of anaphylaxis: cardio NVD, ab pain, cramping - correct answers Chemical manifestation of anaphylaxis: GI Gee, I remember you the second time around 75-76% circulating in all fluids crosses to fetus defends against bacteria/virus - correct answers IgG Absent from blood, surface defense 15-20% circulating On all external surfaces (mucosa, tears, saliva, respi/GI tract) and in milk Most common ummunodefiency - correct answers IgA Macro too big to leave blood. First antibody at scene. 5-8% circulatin Present at birth - correct answers IgM Duh I dont know what this does On surface B cells Minute, 1% not understood - correct answers IgD Emotional! Hypersensitive Minute, less than 1% Protects parasitic infection On mast cells, on basophils Allergic response - correct answers IgE

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Institution
NUR 220
Course
NUR 220

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NUR 220 Exam 1 Study Questions
With 100% Verified Answers Pass
Guaranteed

"You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication." - correct answers A patient
who wears contact lenses is to be placed on rifampin for tuberculosis therapy. What should the nurse
tell the patient?



"Only wear your contact lenses during the day and take them out in the evening before bed."



"You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication."



"The physician can give you eye drops to prevent any problems."



"There are no significant problems with wearing contact lenses."



6-12 months - correct answers The nurse is educating a patient who will be started on an
antituberculosis medication regimen. The patient asks the nurse, "How long will I have to be on these
medications?" What should the nurse tell the patient?



3 months

3 to 5 months

6 to 12 months

13 to 18 months



6 to 12 months - correct answers After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician
tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against
tuberculosis. The client's daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual
duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy?

,3 to 5 days

1 to 3 weeks

2 to 4 months

6 to 12 months



Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact - correct answers A recent immigrant is
diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to
implement with this client?



Client teaching about the cause of TB

Reviewing the risk factors for TB

Developing a list of people with whom the client has had contact

Client teaching about the importance of TB testing



Negative - correct answers A nurse reading a chart notes that the client had a Mantoux skin test result
with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result?

Negative

Positive

Borderline

Uncertain



Wearing a disposable particulate respirator that fits snugly around the face - correct answers A client is
admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis (TB). What intervention should the nurse
include in the client's care plan?



Wearing a disposable particulate respirator that fits snugly around the face

Instructing the client to wear a mask at all times

Wearing a gown and gloves when providing direct care

Keeping the door to the client's room open to observe the client

, HIV encephalopathy - correct answers A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is
brought to the clinic by a family member. The family member tells the nurse the client has become
forgetful, with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What
condition is represented by these symptoms?



Distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)

Candidiasis

HIV encephalopathy

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)



Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. - correct answers A client with suspected exposure to
HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice.
The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a:



p24 antigen test for confirmation of diagnosis.

Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis.

polymerase chain reaction test for confirmation of diagnosis.

T4-cell count for confirmation of diagnosis.



"The client may have cryptococcal meningitis and will need to be evaluated by the health care provider."
- correct answers The nurse receives a phone call at the clinic from the family of a client with AIDS. They
state that the client started "acting funny" and reported headache, tiredness, and a stiff neck. Checking
the temperature resulted in a fever of 103.2°F. What should the nurse inform the family member?



"The client probably has a case of the flu and you should give acetaminophen."

"The client may have cryptococcal meningitis and will need to be evaluated by the health care
provider."

"This is one of the side effects from antiretroviral therapy and will require changing the medication."

"The client probably has pneumocystis pneumonia and will need to be evaluated by the health care
provider."



TMP-SMZ - correct answers A client is diagnosed with pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). What medication
does the nurse anticipate educating the client about for treatment?

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