PHARMACOLOGY ATI RN PROCTORED
EXAM TEST BANK 2026 WITH 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS ALREADY A+ GRADED
CURRENTLY TESTING |NEW AND
REVISED
1. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox)
subcutaneously. Which action is correct?
A) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before
injection.
B) Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
C) Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
D) Administer the injection in the anterolateral abdominal
wall.
Answer: D
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given deep subcutaneous in the
anterolateral or posterolateral abdominal wall. The air
bubble should not be expelled (it prevents loss of
medication). Insert at a 90-degree angle (not 45) using a
skinfold. Do not aspirate.
,2. A patient on digoxin (Lanoxin) has a serum potassium level
of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer the digoxin as ordered.
B) Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
C) Give potassium supplements orally.
D) Increase the digoxin dose.
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (normal K+ 3.5–5.0) increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the medication,
assess for toxicity (nausea, visual halos, bradycardia), and
notify the provider.
3. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for
heparin. Vitamin K reverses warfarin. Naloxone reverses
opioids. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (Coumadin).
Which food should the patient avoid?
A) Apples
B) Rice
C) Spinach
D) Chicken
Answer: C
, Rationale: Spinach and other dark leafy greens are high in
Vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's effects, decreasing
the INR and increasing clot risk.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix)
IV. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Decreased peripheral edema
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased urine output
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid
volume overload. A therapeutic effect is evidenced by
decreased edema, decreased shortness of breath, and
increased urine output.
6. A nurse monitors a patient receiving IV vancomycin. Which
adverse effect requires immediate intervention?
A) Red man syndrome (flushing/rash)
B) Nausea
C) Headache
D) Metallic taste
Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a histamine release reaction
causing flushing, pruritus, and hypotension. It can be severe.
The nurse should stop the infusion (or slow it) and notify the
provider. Infusion over at least 60 minutes prevents this.
7. Which lab value should be monitored closely for a patient
taking lithium (Eskalith)?
, A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is a salt that competes with sodium. Low
sodium levels (e.g., from dehydration, diuretics, or sweating)
cause lithium retention, leading to toxicity. Therapeutic range
is 0.8–1.2 mEq/L.
8. A patient is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril). Which side effect
requires patient education?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Dry cough
C) Angioedema
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) causes a persistent dry
cough (bradykinin accumulation), hyperkalemia (potassium-
sparing effect), and life-threatening angioedema (swelling of
lips/tongue). Teach patient to report swelling immediately.
9. A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil) via nebulizer. The
client complains of tremors and palpitations. What is the
nurse's best response?
A) Stop the treatment immediately and call the provider.
B) Reassure the client that these are expected side effects of
the medication.
C) Administer epinephrine to counteract the effects.
D) Slow the rate of the nebulizer treatment.
EXAM TEST BANK 2026 WITH 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS ALREADY A+ GRADED
CURRENTLY TESTING |NEW AND
REVISED
1. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox)
subcutaneously. Which action is correct?
A) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before
injection.
B) Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
C) Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
D) Administer the injection in the anterolateral abdominal
wall.
Answer: D
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given deep subcutaneous in the
anterolateral or posterolateral abdominal wall. The air
bubble should not be expelled (it prevents loss of
medication). Insert at a 90-degree angle (not 45) using a
skinfold. Do not aspirate.
,2. A patient on digoxin (Lanoxin) has a serum potassium level
of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer the digoxin as ordered.
B) Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
C) Give potassium supplements orally.
D) Increase the digoxin dose.
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (normal K+ 3.5–5.0) increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the medication,
assess for toxicity (nausea, visual halos, bradycardia), and
notify the provider.
3. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for
heparin. Vitamin K reverses warfarin. Naloxone reverses
opioids. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin (Coumadin).
Which food should the patient avoid?
A) Apples
B) Rice
C) Spinach
D) Chicken
Answer: C
, Rationale: Spinach and other dark leafy greens are high in
Vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's effects, decreasing
the INR and increasing clot risk.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix)
IV. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Decreased peripheral edema
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased urine output
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid
volume overload. A therapeutic effect is evidenced by
decreased edema, decreased shortness of breath, and
increased urine output.
6. A nurse monitors a patient receiving IV vancomycin. Which
adverse effect requires immediate intervention?
A) Red man syndrome (flushing/rash)
B) Nausea
C) Headache
D) Metallic taste
Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a histamine release reaction
causing flushing, pruritus, and hypotension. It can be severe.
The nurse should stop the infusion (or slow it) and notify the
provider. Infusion over at least 60 minutes prevents this.
7. Which lab value should be monitored closely for a patient
taking lithium (Eskalith)?
, A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is a salt that competes with sodium. Low
sodium levels (e.g., from dehydration, diuretics, or sweating)
cause lithium retention, leading to toxicity. Therapeutic range
is 0.8–1.2 mEq/L.
8. A patient is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril). Which side effect
requires patient education?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Dry cough
C) Angioedema
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) causes a persistent dry
cough (bradykinin accumulation), hyperkalemia (potassium-
sparing effect), and life-threatening angioedema (swelling of
lips/tongue). Teach patient to report swelling immediately.
9. A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil) via nebulizer. The
client complains of tremors and palpitations. What is the
nurse's best response?
A) Stop the treatment immediately and call the provider.
B) Reassure the client that these are expected side effects of
the medication.
C) Administer epinephrine to counteract the effects.
D) Slow the rate of the nebulizer treatment.
