1
NUR 1020 Exam 3 Review | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update with Complete Solutions.
SECTION 1: Basic Care & Comfort (14 Questions)
Q1: A nurse is preparing to assist a client with a bed bath. The client has an indwelling
urinary catheter and a peripheral IV in the left forearm. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Cover the IV site with a plastic wrap to prevent water contact.
B. Ask the client to assist with washing the perineal area to promote independence.
C. Assess the client's skin for breakdown, redness, or irritation before beginning the
bath. [CORRECT]
D. Remove the client's gown by pulling it over the head to avoid dislodging the IV.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the nurse must assess skin integrity and identify any areas of
concern before bathing to prevent further injury and to document baseline status. Per
standard nursing practice, assessment is the first step in any ADL assistance to ensure
safe, individualized care.
Q2: A nurse is caring for a client who is on a clear liquid diet following a colonoscopy.
Which food item is appropriate for the nurse to offer?
A. Vanilla pudding
B. Chicken broth [CORRECT]
C. Scrambled eggs
D. Mashed potatoes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because clear liquid diets include transparent or translucent liquids
and foods that are liquid at room temperature; chicken broth meets these criteria. Per
standard nursing practice, vanilla pudding, scrambled eggs, and mashed potatoes are
not allowed on a clear liquid diet.
Q3: A nurse is providing perineal care for a female client. Which technique demonstrates
proper infection control?
A. Clean from the anal area toward the vaginal area to prevent contamination.
B. Use a separate washcloth for each stroke, moving from front to back. [CORRECT]
C. Use the same washcloth for the entire perineal area to conserve supplies.
D. Clean the perineal area before the anal area using a circular motion.
,2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because cleaning from front to back (vagina to anus) using a separate
washcloth for each stroke prevents the transfer of fecal organisms to the urinary meatus.
Per standard nursing practice, this technique is essential for UTI prevention and
maintaining medical asepsis.
Q4: A nurse is assessing a client who has been NPO for 24 hours and reports thirst, dry
mucous membranes, and decreased urine output. Which additional finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Bounding peripheral pulses
B. Increased skin turgor
C. Tachycardia [CORRECT]
D. Jugular vein distension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because dehydration leads to decreased intravascular volume,
triggering compensatory tachycardia to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Per standard nursing practice, bounding pulses, normal or increased skin turgor, and
JVD are signs of fluid overload, not dehydration.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a client with dysphagia about safe eating techniques. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. Lie flat in bed while eating to prevent aspiration.
B. Take large bites to finish meals quickly and reduce fatigue.
C. Thicken all liquids to a nectar-like or honey-like consistency as prescribed.
[CORRECT]
D. Talk frequently during meals to promote socialization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because thickened liquids move more slowly through the pharynx,
reducing the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia. Per standard nursing practice,
clients should sit upright at 90 degrees, take small bites, avoid talking while eating, and
follow the prescribed liquid consistency.
Q6: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral nutrition. Which
action should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
A. Administer the feeding with the head of the bed flat to promote digestion.
B. Verify tube placement by auscultating air insufflation before each feeding.
C. Check residual volume every 4 hours and hold feeding if residual exceeds 500 mL.
[CORRECT]
, 3
D. Flush the tube with 50 mL of air after each feeding to maintain patency.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because checking gastric residual volume helps assess gastric
emptying; a residual greater than 500 mL indicates delayed gastric emptying and
increased aspiration risk. Per standard nursing practice, the head of the bed should be
elevated 30-45 degrees, tube placement should be verified by pH testing or radiography,
and tubes are flushed with water, not air.
Q7: A nurse is repositioning a client who is immobile and at risk for pressure injuries.
The nurse places the client in a semi-Fowler's position. Which description best matches
this position?
A. Head of bed elevated 15-30 degrees with knees slightly flexed
B. Head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees with knees slightly flexed [CORRECT]
C. Head of bed elevated 60-90 degrees with legs flat
D. Head of bed flat with a pillow under the knees
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because semi-Fowler's position is defined as elevating the head of the
bed 30-45 degrees, often with slight knee flexion to prevent sliding. Per standard nursing
practice, this position promotes lung expansion and reduces the risk of aspiration while
maintaining client comfort.
Q8: A nurse is assisting a client with crutches to ambulate. The client is non-weight-
bearing on the right leg. Which gait should the nurse teach?
A. Four-point alternating gait
B. Three-point gait [CORRECT]
C. Two-point gait
D. Swing-to gait
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the three-point gait is used when one leg is non-weight-
bearing; the client advances both crutches and the affected leg simultaneously, then
moves the unaffected leg. Per standard nursing practice, this gait provides maximum
stability and protects the non-weight-bearing extremity from bearing load.
Q9: A nurse is assessing a client's pain using the PQRST method. Which question
corresponds to the "Q" component?
A. "What makes the pain better or worse?"
B. "Can you describe the quality of the pain?" [CORRECT]
C. "Where exactly is the pain located?"
NUR 1020 Exam 3 Review | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update with Complete Solutions.
SECTION 1: Basic Care & Comfort (14 Questions)
Q1: A nurse is preparing to assist a client with a bed bath. The client has an indwelling
urinary catheter and a peripheral IV in the left forearm. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Cover the IV site with a plastic wrap to prevent water contact.
B. Ask the client to assist with washing the perineal area to promote independence.
C. Assess the client's skin for breakdown, redness, or irritation before beginning the
bath. [CORRECT]
D. Remove the client's gown by pulling it over the head to avoid dislodging the IV.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the nurse must assess skin integrity and identify any areas of
concern before bathing to prevent further injury and to document baseline status. Per
standard nursing practice, assessment is the first step in any ADL assistance to ensure
safe, individualized care.
Q2: A nurse is caring for a client who is on a clear liquid diet following a colonoscopy.
Which food item is appropriate for the nurse to offer?
A. Vanilla pudding
B. Chicken broth [CORRECT]
C. Scrambled eggs
D. Mashed potatoes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because clear liquid diets include transparent or translucent liquids
and foods that are liquid at room temperature; chicken broth meets these criteria. Per
standard nursing practice, vanilla pudding, scrambled eggs, and mashed potatoes are
not allowed on a clear liquid diet.
Q3: A nurse is providing perineal care for a female client. Which technique demonstrates
proper infection control?
A. Clean from the anal area toward the vaginal area to prevent contamination.
B. Use a separate washcloth for each stroke, moving from front to back. [CORRECT]
C. Use the same washcloth for the entire perineal area to conserve supplies.
D. Clean the perineal area before the anal area using a circular motion.
,2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because cleaning from front to back (vagina to anus) using a separate
washcloth for each stroke prevents the transfer of fecal organisms to the urinary meatus.
Per standard nursing practice, this technique is essential for UTI prevention and
maintaining medical asepsis.
Q4: A nurse is assessing a client who has been NPO for 24 hours and reports thirst, dry
mucous membranes, and decreased urine output. Which additional finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Bounding peripheral pulses
B. Increased skin turgor
C. Tachycardia [CORRECT]
D. Jugular vein distension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because dehydration leads to decreased intravascular volume,
triggering compensatory tachycardia to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Per standard nursing practice, bounding pulses, normal or increased skin turgor, and
JVD are signs of fluid overload, not dehydration.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a client with dysphagia about safe eating techniques. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. Lie flat in bed while eating to prevent aspiration.
B. Take large bites to finish meals quickly and reduce fatigue.
C. Thicken all liquids to a nectar-like or honey-like consistency as prescribed.
[CORRECT]
D. Talk frequently during meals to promote socialization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because thickened liquids move more slowly through the pharynx,
reducing the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia. Per standard nursing practice,
clients should sit upright at 90 degrees, take small bites, avoid talking while eating, and
follow the prescribed liquid consistency.
Q6: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral nutrition. Which
action should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
A. Administer the feeding with the head of the bed flat to promote digestion.
B. Verify tube placement by auscultating air insufflation before each feeding.
C. Check residual volume every 4 hours and hold feeding if residual exceeds 500 mL.
[CORRECT]
, 3
D. Flush the tube with 50 mL of air after each feeding to maintain patency.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because checking gastric residual volume helps assess gastric
emptying; a residual greater than 500 mL indicates delayed gastric emptying and
increased aspiration risk. Per standard nursing practice, the head of the bed should be
elevated 30-45 degrees, tube placement should be verified by pH testing or radiography,
and tubes are flushed with water, not air.
Q7: A nurse is repositioning a client who is immobile and at risk for pressure injuries.
The nurse places the client in a semi-Fowler's position. Which description best matches
this position?
A. Head of bed elevated 15-30 degrees with knees slightly flexed
B. Head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees with knees slightly flexed [CORRECT]
C. Head of bed elevated 60-90 degrees with legs flat
D. Head of bed flat with a pillow under the knees
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because semi-Fowler's position is defined as elevating the head of the
bed 30-45 degrees, often with slight knee flexion to prevent sliding. Per standard nursing
practice, this position promotes lung expansion and reduces the risk of aspiration while
maintaining client comfort.
Q8: A nurse is assisting a client with crutches to ambulate. The client is non-weight-
bearing on the right leg. Which gait should the nurse teach?
A. Four-point alternating gait
B. Three-point gait [CORRECT]
C. Two-point gait
D. Swing-to gait
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the three-point gait is used when one leg is non-weight-
bearing; the client advances both crutches and the affected leg simultaneously, then
moves the unaffected leg. Per standard nursing practice, this gait provides maximum
stability and protects the non-weight-bearing extremity from bearing load.
Q9: A nurse is assessing a client's pain using the PQRST method. Which question
corresponds to the "Q" component?
A. "What makes the pain better or worse?"
B. "Can you describe the quality of the pain?" [CORRECT]
C. "Where exactly is the pain located?"
