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NSG 555 Exam 3 V3 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 3 2026)

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NSG 555 Exam 3 V3 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 3 2026)

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NSG 555 Exam 3 V3 | NSG 555 Nurse
Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes
University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale
(Wilkes NSG555 Exam 3 2026)
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with a new onset

of a harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best at the second intercostal

space, right sternal border. The murmur radiates to the carotid arteries. What is the most

likely diagnosis?

A. Mitral Regurgitation


B. Aortic Stenosis


C. Aortic Regurgitation


D. Mitral Stenosis


Answer: B


Rationale: Aortic stenosis typically presents as a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur

at the right upper sternal border. The radiation to the carotids is a classic physical finding

as the blood is ejected through a narrowed valve into the systemic circulation. This

condition is often age-related due to calcification and requires careful monitoring for

symptoms like syncope or angina.

,2. According to the GOLD 2024 guidelines, which of the following is the required spirometry

finding to confirm the diagnosis of COPD?

A. FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70 post-bronchodilator


B. FEV1 < 80% predicted


C. FEV1/FVC ratio > 0.70 post-bronchodilator


D. FVC < 70% predicted


Answer: A


Rationale: A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 is the definitive

diagnostic criterion for airflow limitation that is not fully reversible. This measurement

ensures that the obstruction is persistent and characteristic of COPD rather than asthma.

Spirometry is considered the gold standard for diagnosis in patients presenting with

chronic cough, dyspnea, and sputum production.


3. A 45-year-old female patient with a BMI of 32 presents with frequent heartburn and

regurgitation. She has tried OTC antacids with minimal relief. What is the initial

recommended pharmacological step for her suspected GERD?

A. Daily H2 Receptor Antagonist for 2 weeks


B. Metoclopramide 10mg before meals


C. Immediate referral for Upper Endoscopy


D. Daily Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) for 8 weeks

,Answer: D


Rationale: The standard of care for initiating therapy in patients with classic symptoms of

GERD and no ‘red flags’ is an 8-week course of PPIs. PPIs are more effective than H2

blockers at healing esophagitis and providing symptomatic relief. If symptoms do not

resolve after the full 8-week course, further investigation such as endoscopy may be

warranted.


4. Which of the following physical exam findings is most suggestive of heart failure with

reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?

A. S3 heart sound


B. S4 heart sound


C. Midsystolic click


D. Opening snap


Answer: A


Rationale: An S3 gallop is a sign of ventricular filling into a dilated, non-compliant

chamber and is highly specific for heart failure in older adults. In contrast, an S4 sound is

associated with left ventricular hypertrophy and diastolic stiffness. Recognizing the S3

heart sound is critical for the clinical diagnosis and assessment of volume status in heart

failure patients.

, 5. A patient with a history of asthma reports using their Albuterol inhaler 4 times a week and

waking up 3 times a month with wheezing. How should their asthma be classified according

to GINA/NHLBI guidelines?

A. Intermittent


B. Moderate Persistent


C. Mild Persistent


D. Severe Persistent


Answer: C


Rationale: Mild persistent asthma is defined by symptoms occurring more than twice a

week but not daily, and nighttime awakenings 3 to 4 times a month. This classification

necessitates the addition of a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for maintenance

therapy. Managing asthma based on these severity levels helps reduce the risk of

exacerbations and lung function decline.


6. A 52-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with sharp, stabbing chest pain

that is worse when lying flat and improved when leaning forward. A friction rub is heard on

auscultation. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. High-dose Aspirin or NSAIDs plus Colchicine


B. Nitroglycerin sublingual


C. Low-molecular-weight heparin


D. Intravenous Furosemide

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