NSG 552 Exam 4 V3 | NSG 552
Psychopharmacology | Wilkes University |
2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG552
Exam 4 2026)
1. A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with ADHD, predominantly inattentive type. Which of the
following medications is a non-stimulant selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
that is FDA-approved for this condition?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Atomoxetine
C. Guanfacine
D. Lisdexamfetamine
Answer: B
Rationale: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant that works by inhibiting the presynaptic
norepinephrine transporter. It is often used in children who cannot tolerate stimulants or
where there is a high risk of diversion. Unlike stimulants, it may take several weeks to see
the full therapeutic effect.
2. According to the Beers Criteria, which medication class should be avoided in elderly
patients due to an increased risk of falls, fractures, and cognitive impairment?
A. SSRIs
,B. Benzodiazepines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Statins
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines increase the risk of sedation and ataxia in the elderly, leading
to a significantly higher incidence of falls. The Beers Criteria specifically recommends
avoiding these in geriatric patients for the treatment of insomnia or agitation. Longer-
acting agents are particularly hazardous due to their prolonged half-life in older adults.
3. Which of the following medications is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability
associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in children aged 5 to 16 years?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Lithium
D. Risperidone
Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone was the first medication FDA-approved to treat irritability,
including aggression and self-injury, in children with autism. Clinical monitoring for
metabolic side effects, such as weight gain and hyperprolactinemia, is essential.
Aripiprazole is the only other atypical antipsychotic with this specific FDA indication.
, 4. A patient presenting with acute alcohol withdrawal is prescribed Diazepam. What is the
primary neurobiological mechanism of benzodiazepines in this context?
A. Antagonism of NMDA receptors
B. Agonism of Dopamine D2 receptors
C. Positive allosteric modulation of GABA-A receptors
D. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines bind to a specific site on the GABA-A receptor, increasing the
frequency of chloride channel opening. This enhances the inhibitory effect of GABA, which
counteracts the CNS hyperexcitability seen during alcohol withdrawal. This mechanism is
crucial for preventing seizures and delirium tremens.
5. Buprenorphine is used in the treatment of Opioid Use Disorder. Which statement best
describes its pharmacological profile?
A. Full mu-opioid agonist
B. Full mu-opioid antagonist
C. Partial mu-opioid agonist
D. Kappa-opioid agonist
Answer: C
Psychopharmacology | Wilkes University |
2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG552
Exam 4 2026)
1. A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with ADHD, predominantly inattentive type. Which of the
following medications is a non-stimulant selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
that is FDA-approved for this condition?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Atomoxetine
C. Guanfacine
D. Lisdexamfetamine
Answer: B
Rationale: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant that works by inhibiting the presynaptic
norepinephrine transporter. It is often used in children who cannot tolerate stimulants or
where there is a high risk of diversion. Unlike stimulants, it may take several weeks to see
the full therapeutic effect.
2. According to the Beers Criteria, which medication class should be avoided in elderly
patients due to an increased risk of falls, fractures, and cognitive impairment?
A. SSRIs
,B. Benzodiazepines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Statins
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines increase the risk of sedation and ataxia in the elderly, leading
to a significantly higher incidence of falls. The Beers Criteria specifically recommends
avoiding these in geriatric patients for the treatment of insomnia or agitation. Longer-
acting agents are particularly hazardous due to their prolonged half-life in older adults.
3. Which of the following medications is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability
associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in children aged 5 to 16 years?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Lithium
D. Risperidone
Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone was the first medication FDA-approved to treat irritability,
including aggression and self-injury, in children with autism. Clinical monitoring for
metabolic side effects, such as weight gain and hyperprolactinemia, is essential.
Aripiprazole is the only other atypical antipsychotic with this specific FDA indication.
, 4. A patient presenting with acute alcohol withdrawal is prescribed Diazepam. What is the
primary neurobiological mechanism of benzodiazepines in this context?
A. Antagonism of NMDA receptors
B. Agonism of Dopamine D2 receptors
C. Positive allosteric modulation of GABA-A receptors
D. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines bind to a specific site on the GABA-A receptor, increasing the
frequency of chloride channel opening. This enhances the inhibitory effect of GABA, which
counteracts the CNS hyperexcitability seen during alcohol withdrawal. This mechanism is
crucial for preventing seizures and delirium tremens.
5. Buprenorphine is used in the treatment of Opioid Use Disorder. Which statement best
describes its pharmacological profile?
A. Full mu-opioid agonist
B. Full mu-opioid antagonist
C. Partial mu-opioid agonist
D. Kappa-opioid agonist
Answer: C
