Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers | ATI RN
Comprehensive Predictor Exam Prep, Comprehensive
Study Guide, Practice Exam, Test Bank, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of Nursing,
Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Mental
Health Nursing, Leadership and Management, Clinical
Judgment, Prioritization, Delegation, NCLEX Readiness,
Detailed Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to ensure client
safety?
A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
B. Obtain the client's baseline vital signs
C. Prime the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
D. Assess the client for a history of transfusion reactions
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Rationale: The first and most critical step in any blood transfusion procedure is to verify
the client's identity using two unique identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) to prevent
a hemolytic transfusion reaction. While obtaining baseline vitals, priming tubing, and
assessing history are important, they occur after the initial identity verification.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a potential
complication of insulin therapy that requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL
B. Heart rate of 88/min
C. Diaphoresis and confusion
D. Polyuria and polydipsia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Diaphoresis and confusion
Rationale: Diaphoresis and confusion are classic signs of hypoglycemia, a life-
threatening complication of insulin therapy. A blood glucose of 110 mg/dL is within
normal range, and a heart rate of 88/min is normal. Polyuria and polydipsia are
symptoms of hyperglycemia, not an immediate crisis.
Question 3: A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following
a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions is most important to
prevent deep vein thrombosis?
A. Administering prescribed low-molecular-weight heparin
B. Applying sequential compression devices
C. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises
D. Assisting the client to ambulate early
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administering prescribed low-molecular-weight
heparin
Rationale: While all listed interventions are important for preventing DVT,
pharmacological prophylaxis with a prescribed anticoagulant is the most important and
,effective intervention, as it directly inhibits the clotting cascade. Mechanical methods
are adjunctive.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative. Which of
the following findings is an early sign of a wound infection?
A. Purulent drainage from the incision site
B. Warmth and erythema at the incision edges
C. Wound dehiscence
D. Fever of 102°F
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Warmth and erythema at the incision edges
Rationale: Warmth and erythema are early signs of localized inflammation and
potential infection. Purulent drainage and fever are later, more definitive signs. Wound
dehiscence is a mechanical complication, not an early sign of infection.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium loss in the
distal tubule, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can precipitate life-threatening
cardiac arrhythmias, especially in a client with heart failure who may also be on digitalis.
Question 6: A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of
enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection
B. Administer the injection in the deltoid muscle
C. Rotate injection sites between the abdomen and thigh
D. Pinch the skin fold and inject the medication subcutaneously
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Pinch the skin fold and inject the medication
subcutaneously
Rationale: Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously in the abdomen. The nurse
should instruct the client to pinch a skin fold to lift the subcutaneous tissue and insert
the needle at a 45-90 degree angle. The air bubble should not be expelled as it prevents
medication loss.
Question 7: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
colostomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will change my pouch system if it is leaking."
B. "I should expect my stool to become more formed over time."
C. "I can irrigate my colostomy to regulate my bowel movements."
D. "I should avoid eating foods that cause gas, like beans and broccoli."
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I can irrigate my colostomy to regulate my bowel
movements."
Rationale: Colostomy irrigation is typically only performed for descending or sigmoid
colostomies to regulate bowel function. It is not appropriate for all types of colostomies
(e.g., ascending or transverse). The client's other statements indicate correct
understanding of colostomy management.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking amiodarone for a
cardiac dysrhythmia. Which of the following findings is a potential adverse
effect of this medication that the nurse should report?
A. Bluish-gray skin discoloration
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Photosensitivity
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Pulmonary fibrosis
Rationale: Amiodarone has a boxed warning for life-threatening pulmonary toxicity,
including pulmonary fibrosis. While the other options are adverse effects, pulmonary
fibrosis is the most severe and requires immediate attention and potential
discontinuation of the drug.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. Which of the following
laboratory findings is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Elevated serum albumin
B. Decreased serum ammonia
C. Elevated prothrombin time
D. Decreased liver enzymes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Elevated prothrombin time
Rationale: The liver synthesizes clotting factors. In cirrhosis, liver function is impaired,
leading to a deficiency in these factors and a prolonged prothrombin time (PT). Albumin
is typically decreased, ammonia is elevated, and liver enzymes (AST, ALT) are typically
elevated.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for gastric
decompression. In which order should the nurse perform the following steps?
A. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B. Lubricate the tip of the tube with water-soluble lubricant
C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
D. Confirm placement with an x-ray
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Rationale: The correct sequence begins with placing the client in a high-Fowler's
position to facilitate passage of the tube. The tube is then measured, lubricated, and
inserted. Confirmation of placement with an x-ray is the final step.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury. Which of
the following daily weights indicates a therapeutic response to fluid
restriction?
, A. A weight gain of 1 kg
B. A weight loss of 0.5 kg
C. A stable weight over 24 hours
D. A weight gain of 0.5 kg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A stable weight over 24 hours
Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury on fluid restriction, the goal is to prevent
fluid overload. A stable weight is the best indicator that fluid balance is being
maintained. Weight gain indicates fluid retention, while weight loss may indicate diuresis
but is not the primary therapeutic goal.
Question 12: A nurse is providing education to a client prescribed phenytoin
for seizures. Which of the following statements by the client indicates
understanding of the medication?
A. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach."
B. "I should report a sore throat or fever to my healthcare provider."
C. "I can stop taking this medication if my seizures stop."
D. "I will take my medication with a glass of milk."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I should report a sore throat or fever to my healthcare
provider."
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias like agranulocytosis. A sore throat or
fever can be a sign of a severe infection due to bone marrow suppression. The
medication should be taken with food, not stopped abruptly, and milk can interfere with
absorption.
Question 13: A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the
following findings indicates the chest tube system is functioning correctly?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
C. Excessive bubbling in the suction control chamber
D. The chest tube is clamped continuously
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
Rationale: Tidaling (fluctuation of the water level with respiration) is a normal and
expected finding in a patent chest tube system. Continuous bubbling indicates an air
leak, and the suction control chamber should have gentle bubbling, not excessive. The
tube should not be clamped.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a catheter-
related bloodstream infection?
A. Change the dressing daily
B. Use sterile technique for all catheter care
C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics
D. Flush the line with heparin
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use sterile technique for all catheter care
Rationale: The primary method to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections is
the use of sterile technique during insertion and dressing changes. Dressing changes are
Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers | ATI RN
Comprehensive Predictor Exam Prep, Comprehensive
Study Guide, Practice Exam, Test Bank, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Fundamentals of Nursing,
Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Mental
Health Nursing, Leadership and Management, Clinical
Judgment, Prioritization, Delegation, NCLEX Readiness,
Detailed Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to ensure client
safety?
A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
B. Obtain the client's baseline vital signs
C. Prime the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
D. Assess the client for a history of transfusion reactions
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Rationale: The first and most critical step in any blood transfusion procedure is to verify
the client's identity using two unique identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) to prevent
a hemolytic transfusion reaction. While obtaining baseline vitals, priming tubing, and
assessing history are important, they occur after the initial identity verification.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a potential
complication of insulin therapy that requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL
B. Heart rate of 88/min
C. Diaphoresis and confusion
D. Polyuria and polydipsia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Diaphoresis and confusion
Rationale: Diaphoresis and confusion are classic signs of hypoglycemia, a life-
threatening complication of insulin therapy. A blood glucose of 110 mg/dL is within
normal range, and a heart rate of 88/min is normal. Polyuria and polydipsia are
symptoms of hyperglycemia, not an immediate crisis.
Question 3: A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following
a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions is most important to
prevent deep vein thrombosis?
A. Administering prescribed low-molecular-weight heparin
B. Applying sequential compression devices
C. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises
D. Assisting the client to ambulate early
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administering prescribed low-molecular-weight
heparin
Rationale: While all listed interventions are important for preventing DVT,
pharmacological prophylaxis with a prescribed anticoagulant is the most important and
,effective intervention, as it directly inhibits the clotting cascade. Mechanical methods
are adjunctive.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative. Which of
the following findings is an early sign of a wound infection?
A. Purulent drainage from the incision site
B. Warmth and erythema at the incision edges
C. Wound dehiscence
D. Fever of 102°F
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Warmth and erythema at the incision edges
Rationale: Warmth and erythema are early signs of localized inflammation and
potential infection. Purulent drainage and fever are later, more definitive signs. Wound
dehiscence is a mechanical complication, not an early sign of infection.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium loss in the
distal tubule, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can precipitate life-threatening
cardiac arrhythmias, especially in a client with heart failure who may also be on digitalis.
Question 6: A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of
enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection
B. Administer the injection in the deltoid muscle
C. Rotate injection sites between the abdomen and thigh
D. Pinch the skin fold and inject the medication subcutaneously
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Pinch the skin fold and inject the medication
subcutaneously
Rationale: Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously in the abdomen. The nurse
should instruct the client to pinch a skin fold to lift the subcutaneous tissue and insert
the needle at a 45-90 degree angle. The air bubble should not be expelled as it prevents
medication loss.
Question 7: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
colostomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will change my pouch system if it is leaking."
B. "I should expect my stool to become more formed over time."
C. "I can irrigate my colostomy to regulate my bowel movements."
D. "I should avoid eating foods that cause gas, like beans and broccoli."
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I can irrigate my colostomy to regulate my bowel
movements."
Rationale: Colostomy irrigation is typically only performed for descending or sigmoid
colostomies to regulate bowel function. It is not appropriate for all types of colostomies
(e.g., ascending or transverse). The client's other statements indicate correct
understanding of colostomy management.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking amiodarone for a
cardiac dysrhythmia. Which of the following findings is a potential adverse
effect of this medication that the nurse should report?
A. Bluish-gray skin discoloration
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Photosensitivity
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Pulmonary fibrosis
Rationale: Amiodarone has a boxed warning for life-threatening pulmonary toxicity,
including pulmonary fibrosis. While the other options are adverse effects, pulmonary
fibrosis is the most severe and requires immediate attention and potential
discontinuation of the drug.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. Which of the following
laboratory findings is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Elevated serum albumin
B. Decreased serum ammonia
C. Elevated prothrombin time
D. Decreased liver enzymes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Elevated prothrombin time
Rationale: The liver synthesizes clotting factors. In cirrhosis, liver function is impaired,
leading to a deficiency in these factors and a prolonged prothrombin time (PT). Albumin
is typically decreased, ammonia is elevated, and liver enzymes (AST, ALT) are typically
elevated.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for gastric
decompression. In which order should the nurse perform the following steps?
A. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B. Lubricate the tip of the tube with water-soluble lubricant
C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
D. Confirm placement with an x-ray
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Rationale: The correct sequence begins with placing the client in a high-Fowler's
position to facilitate passage of the tube. The tube is then measured, lubricated, and
inserted. Confirmation of placement with an x-ray is the final step.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury. Which of
the following daily weights indicates a therapeutic response to fluid
restriction?
, A. A weight gain of 1 kg
B. A weight loss of 0.5 kg
C. A stable weight over 24 hours
D. A weight gain of 0.5 kg
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A stable weight over 24 hours
Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury on fluid restriction, the goal is to prevent
fluid overload. A stable weight is the best indicator that fluid balance is being
maintained. Weight gain indicates fluid retention, while weight loss may indicate diuresis
but is not the primary therapeutic goal.
Question 12: A nurse is providing education to a client prescribed phenytoin
for seizures. Which of the following statements by the client indicates
understanding of the medication?
A. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach."
B. "I should report a sore throat or fever to my healthcare provider."
C. "I can stop taking this medication if my seizures stop."
D. "I will take my medication with a glass of milk."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I should report a sore throat or fever to my healthcare
provider."
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias like agranulocytosis. A sore throat or
fever can be a sign of a severe infection due to bone marrow suppression. The
medication should be taken with food, not stopped abruptly, and milk can interfere with
absorption.
Question 13: A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the
following findings indicates the chest tube system is functioning correctly?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
C. Excessive bubbling in the suction control chamber
D. The chest tube is clamped continuously
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
Rationale: Tidaling (fluctuation of the water level with respiration) is a normal and
expected finding in a patent chest tube system. Continuous bubbling indicates an air
leak, and the suction control chamber should have gentle bubbling, not excessive. The
tube should not be clamped.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a catheter-
related bloodstream infection?
A. Change the dressing daily
B. Use sterile technique for all catheter care
C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics
D. Flush the line with heparin
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use sterile technique for all catheter care
Rationale: The primary method to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections is
the use of sterile technique during insertion and dressing changes. Dressing changes are
