NURS 310 HESI NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS & RATIONALES VERIFIED ANSWERS –
GRADED A+ (LATEST UPDATE)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Q1–Q50)
Q1. Prior to administering a newly prescribed medication to a client, the nurse
reviews the adverse effects of the medication listed in a drug reference guide and
determines the priority risks to the client. While performing this action, the nurse
is engaged in which step of the nursing process?
a) Assessment
b) Analysis
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
Correct Answer: b) Analysis
Rationale: Analysis involves interpreting assessment data to identify nursing
diagnoses (e.g., "Risk for injury"). This guides planning and implementation, while
evaluation determines effectiveness.
Q2. The nurse is discussing dietary preferences with a client who adheres to a
vegan diet. Which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to
include in the dietary plan?
a) Fiber
b) Folate
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: d) Vitamin B12
Rationale: Vitamin B12 is found primarily in animal products; vegans are at high
risk for deficiency and need supplementation.
Q3. A client with a new colostomy expresses anger and refuses to look at the
stoma. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?
1
,a) Explain that the anger is normal and allow verbalization.
b) Offer to contact a psychiatric consult.
c) Demonstrate how to clean the stoma while the client watches.
d) Leave the client alone to process feelings.
Correct Answer: a) Explain that anger is normal and allow verbalization.
Rationale: Acknowledging feelings and providing therapeutic communication
builds trust and facilitates coping.
Q4. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. In which position should the
client be placed?
a) Supine with head flat
b) High Fowler's with head flexed forward
c) Left side-lying with neck extended
d) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: b) High Fowler's with head flexed forward
Rationale: This position facilitates passage of the tube through the oropharynx
and into the esophagus.
Q5. A client has an order for restraints. Which action by the nurse demonstrates
correct use?
a) Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement.
b) Tie restraints to the bed frame using a quick-release knot.
c) Document the type of restraint but not the time applied.
d) Keep restraints on continuously for 24 hours.
Correct Answer: b) Tie restraints to the bed frame using a quick-release knot.
Rationale: Quick-release knots allow immediate removal in an emergency;
restraints must be tied to the frame, not side rails.
Q6. The nurse is assessing a client's peripheral pulses. Which pulse site is used to
assess circulation to the foot?
a) Radial
b) Brachial
c) Dorsalis pedis
2
,d) Carotid
Correct Answer: c) Dorsalis pedis
Rationale: Dorsalis pedis pulse is located on the top of the foot and indicates
perfusion to the lower extremity.
Q7. A client reports difficulty sleeping in the hospital. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
a) Administer a prescribed sedative.
b) Offer warm milk and back rub.
c) Assess the client's usual sleep pattern.
d) Dim the lights and close the door.
Correct Answer: c) Assess the client's usual sleep pattern.
Rationale: Assessment is the first step to identify underlying causes and tailor
non-pharmacological interventions.
Q8. The nurse is administering a tuberculin skin test. Which route is correct?
a) Subcutaneous
b) Intramuscular
c) Intradermal
d) Intravenous
Correct Answer: c) Intradermal
Rationale: TB skin test (Mantoux) is given intradermally on the forearm to
produce a wheal for proper reading.
Q9. A client with diabetes has a blood glucose of 350 mg/dL. Which symptom is
expected?
a) Diaphoresis and palpitations
b) Polyuria and polydipsia
c) Tremors and confusion
d) Bradycardia and hypotension
Correct Answer: b) Polyuria and polydipsia
Rationale: Hyperglycemia causes osmotic diuresis (polyuria) and dehydration
leading to excessive thirst (polydipsia).
3
, Q10. The nurse is caring for a client on fall precautions. Which action is most
important?
a) Keep the bed in the lowest position.
b) Place the call bell out of reach to encourage movement.
c) Apply wrist restraints at night.
d) Leave all four side rails up.
Correct Answer: a) Keep the bed in the lowest position.
Rationale: Low bed position reduces injury risk if the client attempts to get up; all
other options increase risk or are restrictive.
Q11. A client who is NPO (nothing by mouth) requests ice chips. The nurse should:
a) Provide a small amount of ice chips.
b) Offer hard candy instead.
c) Explain that NPO means nothing by mouth, including ice chips.
d) Allow water only.
Correct Answer: c) Explain that NPO means nothing by mouth, including ice chips.
Rationale: NPO prohibits all oral intake, including ice chips and water, to prepare
for procedures or prevent aspiration.
Q12. The nurse is performing hand hygiene. Which statement is correct?
a) Alcohol-based rub is effective against Clostridium difficile spores.
b) Soap and water should be used for visibly soiled hands.
c) Hand sanitizer is preferred over soap for all situations.
d) Handwashing should last at least 5 minutes.
Correct Answer: b) Soap and water should be used for visibly soiled hands.
Rationale: Alcohol-based rubs are not effective against C. diff spores; soap and
water are required when hands are visibly dirty.
Q13. A client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which characteristic is expected?
a) Intact skin with non-blanchable erythema
b) Full-thickness skin loss with visible bone
c) Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer
4
COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS & RATIONALES VERIFIED ANSWERS –
GRADED A+ (LATEST UPDATE)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Q1–Q50)
Q1. Prior to administering a newly prescribed medication to a client, the nurse
reviews the adverse effects of the medication listed in a drug reference guide and
determines the priority risks to the client. While performing this action, the nurse
is engaged in which step of the nursing process?
a) Assessment
b) Analysis
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
Correct Answer: b) Analysis
Rationale: Analysis involves interpreting assessment data to identify nursing
diagnoses (e.g., "Risk for injury"). This guides planning and implementation, while
evaluation determines effectiveness.
Q2. The nurse is discussing dietary preferences with a client who adheres to a
vegan diet. Which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to
include in the dietary plan?
a) Fiber
b) Folate
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: d) Vitamin B12
Rationale: Vitamin B12 is found primarily in animal products; vegans are at high
risk for deficiency and need supplementation.
Q3. A client with a new colostomy expresses anger and refuses to look at the
stoma. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?
1
,a) Explain that the anger is normal and allow verbalization.
b) Offer to contact a psychiatric consult.
c) Demonstrate how to clean the stoma while the client watches.
d) Leave the client alone to process feelings.
Correct Answer: a) Explain that anger is normal and allow verbalization.
Rationale: Acknowledging feelings and providing therapeutic communication
builds trust and facilitates coping.
Q4. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. In which position should the
client be placed?
a) Supine with head flat
b) High Fowler's with head flexed forward
c) Left side-lying with neck extended
d) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: b) High Fowler's with head flexed forward
Rationale: This position facilitates passage of the tube through the oropharynx
and into the esophagus.
Q5. A client has an order for restraints. Which action by the nurse demonstrates
correct use?
a) Apply restraints tightly to prevent movement.
b) Tie restraints to the bed frame using a quick-release knot.
c) Document the type of restraint but not the time applied.
d) Keep restraints on continuously for 24 hours.
Correct Answer: b) Tie restraints to the bed frame using a quick-release knot.
Rationale: Quick-release knots allow immediate removal in an emergency;
restraints must be tied to the frame, not side rails.
Q6. The nurse is assessing a client's peripheral pulses. Which pulse site is used to
assess circulation to the foot?
a) Radial
b) Brachial
c) Dorsalis pedis
2
,d) Carotid
Correct Answer: c) Dorsalis pedis
Rationale: Dorsalis pedis pulse is located on the top of the foot and indicates
perfusion to the lower extremity.
Q7. A client reports difficulty sleeping in the hospital. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
a) Administer a prescribed sedative.
b) Offer warm milk and back rub.
c) Assess the client's usual sleep pattern.
d) Dim the lights and close the door.
Correct Answer: c) Assess the client's usual sleep pattern.
Rationale: Assessment is the first step to identify underlying causes and tailor
non-pharmacological interventions.
Q8. The nurse is administering a tuberculin skin test. Which route is correct?
a) Subcutaneous
b) Intramuscular
c) Intradermal
d) Intravenous
Correct Answer: c) Intradermal
Rationale: TB skin test (Mantoux) is given intradermally on the forearm to
produce a wheal for proper reading.
Q9. A client with diabetes has a blood glucose of 350 mg/dL. Which symptom is
expected?
a) Diaphoresis and palpitations
b) Polyuria and polydipsia
c) Tremors and confusion
d) Bradycardia and hypotension
Correct Answer: b) Polyuria and polydipsia
Rationale: Hyperglycemia causes osmotic diuresis (polyuria) and dehydration
leading to excessive thirst (polydipsia).
3
, Q10. The nurse is caring for a client on fall precautions. Which action is most
important?
a) Keep the bed in the lowest position.
b) Place the call bell out of reach to encourage movement.
c) Apply wrist restraints at night.
d) Leave all four side rails up.
Correct Answer: a) Keep the bed in the lowest position.
Rationale: Low bed position reduces injury risk if the client attempts to get up; all
other options increase risk or are restrictive.
Q11. A client who is NPO (nothing by mouth) requests ice chips. The nurse should:
a) Provide a small amount of ice chips.
b) Offer hard candy instead.
c) Explain that NPO means nothing by mouth, including ice chips.
d) Allow water only.
Correct Answer: c) Explain that NPO means nothing by mouth, including ice chips.
Rationale: NPO prohibits all oral intake, including ice chips and water, to prepare
for procedures or prevent aspiration.
Q12. The nurse is performing hand hygiene. Which statement is correct?
a) Alcohol-based rub is effective against Clostridium difficile spores.
b) Soap and water should be used for visibly soiled hands.
c) Hand sanitizer is preferred over soap for all situations.
d) Handwashing should last at least 5 minutes.
Correct Answer: b) Soap and water should be used for visibly soiled hands.
Rationale: Alcohol-based rubs are not effective against C. diff spores; soap and
water are required when hands are visibly dirty.
Q13. A client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which characteristic is expected?
a) Intact skin with non-blanchable erythema
b) Full-thickness skin loss with visible bone
c) Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer
4
