State Exam Nursing New Zealand – Nursing Council of New Zealand (NCNZ) State Examination – 2026/2027 Edition – Verified Questions and Answers

State Exam Nursing New Zealand – Nursing Council of New Zealand (NCNZ) State Examination – 2026/2027 Edition – Verified Questions and Answers The role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand is: a. to protect the unregulated and regulated health workforce b. to regulate doctors to protect public safety c. to regulate nursing to protect public safety d. to protect the nursing workforce. c. to regulate nursing to protect public safety While at work you answer a phone call from a person who is very distressed but won’t give you their name. You should: a. Tell them to ring back when they are less upset b. Introduce yourself and tell them what you do. c. Explain that you need to see them to talk to them properly. d. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information. d. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information. A person's response to surgery is influenced by many factors. When a person is admitted for surgery you should explore: a. their perceptions and expectations for the admission b. the risks they are exposed to during surgery c. the reason for surgery instead of more conservative treatment d. how psychological stress affects their long-term prognosis a. their perceptions and expectations for the admission A patient tells you they are worried about their surgery. You can most effectively help to relieve their concerns by: a. explaining what will happen before the surgery b. explaining how pain will be controlled after the operation c. encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation d. explaining how postoperative complications can be prevented. c. encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation While admitting a patient for a surgical procedure they ask you why they need to be weighed. Your best reply would be: a. “Surgery is not carried out on people who are above the ideal body weight.” b. “We need to compare your weight on admission with that on your discharge.” c. “Some drug dosages are calculated according to body weight.” d. “It is routine for all admission to this unit.” c. "Some drug dosages are calculated according to body weight." Prior to surgery, a patient is to have nothing to eat or drink. This is necessary to: a. assist in the proper absorption of the anaesthetic b. prevent nausea and vomiting immediately after surgery c. avoid the danger of inhaling stomach contents d. avoid incontinence during surgery c. avoid the danger of inhaling stomach contents One of your responsibilities when caring for a patient in the postoperative phase is to observe for signs of haemorrhage. The type of shock resulting from haemorrhage is: a. Hypovolaemic b. Vasogenic c. Neurogenic d. Cardiogenic a. Hypovolaemic For eight hours following surgery, your patient has had an intravenous infusion running but they are having difficulty passing urine. Your most appropriate action would be to: a. Offer adequate analgesia so that they are able to use their abdominal muscles b. Assist the patient in standing and passing urine c. Increase oral fluids to counteract any dehydration d. Contact the house surgeon and prepare a tray for catheterisation. b. Assist the patient in standing and passing urine To form a basis of trust in your professional relationship with a patient it is essential for you to: a. show an interest in the patient’s problems b. be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient c. make a special time each day to meet with the patient d. be open to any activity that the patient wishes to be involved in b. be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient A patient’s partner is worried that the patient is not getting enough to eat. They want to feed them. Your most appropriate response is: a. “I’m sure your partner would appreciate you doing this for them.” b. “What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?” c. “We want to encourage your partner’s independence.” d. “I will discuss your partner’s dietary needs with the dietician.” c. "We want to encourage your partner's independence." A patient has been prescribed morphine 8 mg 2-3 hourly PRN for pain. The unit stock of morphine is 10 mg in 1 mL. How much morphine should be drawn up for the patient? a. 0.08 mL b. 0.25 mL c. 0.75 mL d. 0.80 mL d. 0.80 mL A patient has one litre of fluid running intravenously every 12 hours. The drop factor is 60 drops per mL. How many drops per minute should be given? a. 68 drops per minute b. 83 drops per minute c. 96 drops per minute d. 120 drops per minute b. 83 drops per minute A child weighs 22.4 kg, and the prescription is for 24 mg/kg body weight. The medication comes at a strength of 50 mg/mL. Calculate how many mL (to one decimal place) of the medication the child should receive: a. 7.5 mL b. 8.5 mL c. 9.8 mL d. 10.8 mL d. 10.8 mL What is the alcoholic-induced dementia called? a. Alzheimer’s b. Lewy body c. Karascoffs syndrome c. Karascoffs syndrome What is your first response to an acute spinal injury? a. Immobilise the patient b. Catheterisation c. Stabilise airway d. Pain relief a. Immobilise the patient You come across a patient who has fallen in the shower, what is your first response? a. Assess danger b. Send for help c. Stabilise airway d. Responsiveness a. Assess danger What is a sign of hypoxia? a. Hypertension b. Tachycardia c. Tachypnoea d. Bradycardia c. Tachypnoea Rapid breathing to increase the oxygen levels in the body. Why is insulin only given by injection and not as an oral drug? a. Injected insulin works faster than oral drugs to lower blood glucose levels b. Insulin is a small protein that is destroyed by stomach acids and intestinal enzymes c. Insulin is a "high-alert drug" and could more easily be abused if it were available as an oral agent d. Oral insulin has a high "first pass loss" rate in the liver and would require very high dosages to be effective. b. Insulin is a small protein that is destroyed by stomach acids and intestinal enzymes A parent is coming in with their 15-month-old child for their immunisations. The dad is worried about how they will manage at home afterwards. What is the correct statement about paracetamol? a. Don’t give paracetamol it doesn’t work b. Give paracetamol prior to appointment and then 4 times over the next 24 hours c. Only give if needed and no more than 4 times over 24 hour period b. Give paracetamol prior to appointment and then 4 times over the next 24 hours How is Gonorrhoea treated? a. Antivirals b. Antibiotics as its bacterial c. Antifungals because it’s fungal d. Nothing b. Antibiotics as its bacterial A 16-year-old is admitted to a mental health facility for psychosis, he expresses he thinks he has a sexually transmitted infection as he had unprotected sex, he tells you he does not want his parents to know. What is your next action? a. Keep his confidentiality b. Say I have to tell your parents c. Book him into the sexual health clinic d. Admit him under the MHA assessment and treatment a. Keep his confidentiality A patient who is under the MHA with mania is disruptive and starting to annoy other patients. What is your best response? a. Leave them in a room alone b. Tell them this was unacceptable and set boundaries c. Get them to express how they are feeling d. Give PRN medication. b. Tell them this was unacceptable and set boundaries A patient is becoming very aggressive. What is your best action to ensure your safety? a. Give them space and let the team know b. Take them to a quiet room c. Distraction techniques d. Get them to express why they are feeling this way a. Give them space and let the team know There is a dementia patient who keeps thinking you’re their relative. What is your response? a. Pretend you are and ask question b. Keep telling them you’re not c. Say “Your relative would be upset if they knew you were saying this” d. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity d. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity An elderly patient is refusing their nightly sedation medication, what is your best response? a. Leave it on their table b. Document on the medication chart that they have refused and the reason why c. Tell them they must have it as it's prescribed d. Reassurance that this is a safe medication to take, and you must take it as its prescribed b. Document on the medication chart that they have refused and the reason why What do you need to know if you are giving medication? a. Classification, contradiction and the trade name b. The contradictions, MOA, and reason for being prescribed c. After administering if you don’t know ring the prescriber to ask for more details d. I don’t know ring the doctor b. The contradictions, MOA, and reason for being prescribed A patient says that’s a different colour to my usual tablet. What is your best response? a. Say you will go and recheck medication and be back b. Sometimes the pharmacist substitutes brands but it is the same medication c. It’s the same medication as it's prescribed by a doctor d. It’s fine don’t worry about it b. Sometimes the pharmacist substitutes brands but it is the same medication What is the correct position for hip replacement? a. Don’t let them cross their right leg over their body b. Sit them up in semi-fowlers at 90 degrees c. Supine d. Lying on their right ride c. Supine What is the importance of vitamin D? a. Helps absorb calcium b. Helps absorb magnesium c. Helps absorb iron a. Helps absorb calcium What is some advice you can give an elderly patient to help promote bone density? a. Take a supplement that’s high in calcium and vitamin D b. Encourage more physical activity c. Weight-bearing activities d. Eat more protein a. Take a supplement that's high in calcium and vitamin D A whanau and their tamariki want to attend a hui. However, their tamariki has measles, what is your best response? a. Acknowledge the significance of attending but also provide information on the risks of measles b. Tell them they shouldn’t go c. They can go if everyone is immunised a. Acknowledge the significance of attending but also provide information on the risks of measles You’re attending a primary school to give a teaching on hand hygiene. What is the first thing you should do? a. Obtain their level of understanding and deficits b. Gain informed consent from the parents c. Give a handout one per person b. Gain informed consent from the parents Why are people who are immobilised at more risk of pneumonia? a. The secretions that are built up in the lungs turn into infection b. The gravity helps with the viscosity of the mucus c. Unsure of the other options a. The secretions that are built up in the lungs turn into infection A patient presents with a red painful calf, struggling to breathe and pink sputum what do you think is happening? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Cellulitis c. Fat embolism d. DVT a. Pulmonary embolism What is the correct statement about a TIA? a. It's more serious than a stroke b. Only lasts up to 24 hours c. Results in paralysis of the body b. Only lasts up to 24 hours A patient has right-sided hemiplegia what does this present as? a. Right-sided paralysis b. Left-sided paralysis c. Shoulder weakness b. Left-sided paralysis What does an osmotic laxative do? a. Increase peristalsis b. Draw fluid into the large intestines to soften stool c. Draw fluid into the lubricate the large intestines b. Draw fluid into the large intestines to soften stool The patient has expressed he would like to make a complaint about his psychiatrist. What is your next step? a. Tell them that is normal not to like them b. Tell them they need to discuss this with their psychiatrist c. Discuss with your doctor d. They have the right to complain so you give them the complaint form d. They have the right to complain so you give them the complaint form A child under Oranga Tamariki care needs a blood transfusion who can legally sign off on this? a. Oranga Tamariki caregiver b. Guardian c. Doctor/prescriber d. Parent b. Guardian What organ clears the blood of alcohol, drugs and other harmful substances? a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder a. Liver A medication prescription of 25 mg/kg/day TDS. The patient weighs 10 kg what is the correct amount for each dose? a. 83.3mg b. 250mg c. 0.83mg d. 8.3mg a. 83.3mg A patient has just told you they had a fall earlier in the shift. What should you do first? a. Report to the doctor straight away b. Assess the patient for any injuries then monitor for the next 24 hours c. Do neurological observations and if normal don’t do anything else d. Document that they had a fall a. Report to the doctor straight away An alcoholic patient who was admitted is going through withdrawal and is shaking, nauseated and clammy. After taking their vital signs, what is your next step? a. Report to the physician straight away b. Start the alcohol withdrawal scope c. If vital signs are ok do nothing d. Administer IVF a. Report to the physician straight away A child presents with a sore throat, what is the first thing you do? a. Swab their throat and give AB’s b. Lymph node assessment and palpate neck c. Check vitals d. Get more history and background d. Get more history and background A patient is post-op from an adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy and is internally bleeding. What are the signs of internal bleeding? a. Increased respirations and increased pulse b. Increased respirations and decreased pulse c. Decreased respirations and decreased pulse d. Decreased respirations and increased pulse d. Decreased respirations and increased pulse A 7-year-old presents to ED with acute exacerbated asthma. Which of the following is the most concerning sign? a. Coughs when given a bronchodilator b. Unable to speak in full sentences c. Oxygen saturating 98% on 2L of oxygen b. Unable to speak in full sentences A police officer arrives at the ward and asks to interview a patient who was involved in an accident. What is your response? a. Tell the officer they can interview the patient once they are discharged from the hospital b. Tell the officer the patient is very sick right now, but what can I do to help? c. Take the officer to the patient for an interview. b. Tell the officer the patient is very sick right now, but what can I do to help? Vaccines are required to be... a. Stored away from sunlight and does not require refrigeration b. Refrigerated if it is a liquid solution c. Refrigerated at 2-8 degrees d. Refrigerated for a while at 5 degrees c. Refrigerated at 2-8 degrees A MH patient is sitting in the lounge room naked. What should you do? a. Send the patient to their room b. Ask other service users to leave the lounge to give the patient privacy c. Cover the patient and take them to their room d. Tell patient if they want their PRN medication c. Cover the patient and take them to their room You witness a nurse humiliate a patient. After ensuring the patient is okay, what must you do? a. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager. b. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable, if this continues you will have to report it to the nurse or manager. c. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable and that they should inform the charge nurse. d. Don’t do anything as the patient must have been in the wrong. a. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager. A nurse has made a public facebook page about “anti-vaccination”. She has stated she is a nurse. a. This is wrong as nurses should not undermine public health b. This is right as nurses can have their own personal views c. Report this to the nursing council a. This is wrong as nurses should not undermine public health You have received a handover from the night staff. What is your priority? a. A patient who is going for mega surgery later in the morning b. A post-op patient with oozing wound c. A post-op patient who is transferring to another hospital d. A patient who had difficulty breathing the shift before d. A patient who had difficulty breathing the shift before Signs of abuse on a child you are caring for are: a. a 1 cm laceration on the forehead b. a haematoma on the child's head c. several marks on the child's back d. a small bruise on their lower extremity c. several marks on the child's back A patient with bipolar disorder is pacing up and down and is very distressed. What is the most appropriate action? a. Tell the patient they need to stop what they are doing b. Take the patient to a quiet empty room till they calm down c. Ask the patient what is concerning them d. Ask the patient if they want their antidepressant c. Ask the patient what is concerning them The mother of a patient who is under the MHA asks you who can release them from the MHA. a. Responsible clinician b. Registered nurse c. Judge a. Responsible clinician A patient is to have an urgent blood transfusion. You notice the initials of the blood type on the blood bag is different to what is given on the patient's chart. What is the right action? a. Give blood but watch for any reactions b. Withhold the transfusion and document the error in notes c. Withhold the transfusion and call the blood bank for another bag d. Inform the charge nurse whether you should give it or withhold c. Withhold the transfusion and call the blood bank for another bag A patient is admitted. Whanau wants to do a cultural assessment but cultural advisors are not available. What do you do? a. Discuss their cultural needs b. Send an email to cultural advisors to get back to us when they can c. Tell whanau cultural advisers are not available so a cultural assessment cannot be done. a. Discuss their cultural needs The patient was given morphine sulphate. What is the most important action? a. Come back every shift to check the IV site b. Assess the patient's heart rate c. Observe the patient's blood pressure d. Document all medications given and time given in patient's notes d. Document all medications given and time given in patient's notes Typically, monitoring RR is the most important action when giving morphine as respiratory depression is a potential side effect. However, since this is not an option, it would then be important to ensure accurate documentation to avoid overdosing or harmful drug interactions. You suspect a patient has DVT. What is the reason for your clinical manifestation? a. Cold and pale painful calf b. Obvious limp and weakness on the left leg c. Red and swollen painful calf c. Red and swollen painful calf An EN is working with you. You delegate tasks to EN. What must you do as an RN? a. Follow up with EN b. Ensure tasks are done satisfactorily c. Note down the tasks then check if all tasks have been done d. You do not need to check as EN is responsible enough. b. Ensure tasks are done satisfactorily Patient with depression asks you if they could be left alone to sleep. What must you check as the nurse? a. Ask the patient if are they feeling suicidal or planning to take their life b. Check when the last time they talked to family and friends c. Check if they have eaten their meals a. Ask the patient if are they feeling suicidal or planning to take their life A patient is being prepared for their surgery. What is the role of the nurse in this situation? a. Check if consent forms are signed b. Check the patient's understanding of the surgery c. Gain consent from the patient b. Check the patient's understanding of the surgery You notice a box of controlled drugs is missing from the medication room. What is the most important action? a. Report to your charge nurse immediately b. Ask every nurse if they have taken it c. Report to the house officer immediately d. Report to the pharmacist immediately a. Report to your charge nurse immediately A patient has been admitted to the ED. You notice they are losing consciousness. What is your immediate action? a. Assess responsiveness then call for help b. Administer oxygen c. Commence CPR a. Assess responsiveness then call for help What increases the risk of delirium in older adults? a. UTI b. Ageing process c. Family member dying a. UTI Your patient, who is a voluntary admission to a mental health unit, leaves the following day without telling anyone. Legally, what is required by staff: a. Provide care for him at home b. Re-admit him under a compulsory order c. Get police to bring him in to sign a statement d. Do nothing, the patient has right to leave health care at any time d. Do nothing, the patient has right to leave health care at any time A pregnant woman at 30 weeks’ gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of: a. Gestational hypertension b. Pre-eclampsia c. Eclampsia d. Elevated liver enzymes b. Pre-eclampsia The primary pathophysiologic basis for the clinical manifestations of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is: a. Fluid retention related to excessive salt intake b. Ineffective excretion of fluid by the kidneys c. Cardiac decompensation d. Ineffective dilation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding blood volume of pregnancy d. Ineffective dilation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding blood volume of pregnancy Which measure would be least effective in relieving the signs and symptoms of mild pre eclampsia? a. Low salt diet b. Period of bed rest c. Balance diet with protein d. Relaxation techniques a. Low salt diet A woman with severe pre-eclampsia is being monitored for assessment findings indicative of cerebral oedema and vasospasm. Which of the following would you NOT expect to find? a. Hypotonic deep tendon reflexes b. Headache c. Vision changes including burring and spots before the eyes d. Insomnia a. Hypotonic deep tendon reflexes Cerebral oedema and vasospasm are severe complications of pre-eclampsia. Cerebral oedema refers to swelling in the brain caused by excess fluid, while vasospasm refers to the constriction of blood vessels, which can reduce blood flow to the brain. The symptoms of cerebral oedema and venospasm can include headache, vision changes including blurring and spots before the eyes, and insomnia. These symptoms are due to increased pressure in the brain and reduced blood flow. Newly expectant parents, ask the nurse how they can prepare their 3-year-old preschool daughter for the new baby. All of the following would be useful except: a. Tell the child about the pregnancy as soon as a mother begins to look pregnant b. Arrange for a few sleepovers with the person who will care for the child at the time of the birth c. Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby d. Introduce their child to preschool as soon as possible c. Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby Which of the following represents a positive change of pregnancy a. Morning sickness b. Quickening c. Positive pregnancy test d. Foetal heart beat auscultated with Doppler d. Foetal heart beat auscultated with Doppler Which of the following statements can be used as a guideline for planning diets during pregnancy? a. An increase of 300 calories per day beginning in the first trimester b. A ten percent increase in protein above daily requirements c. Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron d. The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent c. Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron Which of the following represents a recommended weight gain during pregnancy? a. 6-11 kgs b. 11-16 kgs c. 13-18 kgs d. 18-20 kgs b. 11-16 kgs Larry and Mary Smith had planned their first pregnancy for some time, but when it was confirmed, Mary felt conflicting emotions. She comes to the clinic for her first prenatal (antenatal) visit at ten weeks gestation. Mary shares her mixed feelings about the pregnancy with the midwife. The midwife's best response would be to: a. Encourage her to consider abortion counselling b. Encourage her to seek support from Larry c. Reassure her that when she feels the baby move, her mixed feelings will disappear completely d. Reassure her that most women experience some mixed feelings in early pregnancy, even when their pregnancies are planned d. Reassure her that most women experience some mixed feelings in early pregnancy, even when their pregnancies are planned Mary's last menstrual period was 11 April. Her EDD (expected date of delivery) would be: a. 4 January b. 18 January c. 25 January d. 4 February b. 18 January To calculate the expected date of delivery (EDD), we need to add 280 days (40 weeks) to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). Therefore, Mary's EDD will be on 18 January. During a subsequent visit, Mary states she has begun to feel foetal movement. Foetal movement is usually felt by the pregnant woman when the foetus is approximately a) 12 weeks gestation b) 16 weeks gestation c) 22 weeks gestation d) 26 weeks gestation b) 16 weeks gestation Tui is 22 years old and has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms she is pregnant. This is her first pregnancy. Tui can expect to experience all the following signs in the early stages of her pregnancy except: a) Chadwick's sign b) Goodell sign c) Homans sign d) Frequency of micturition c) Homans sign The Chadwick sign is a non-specific, early sign of pregnancy that is typically characterised by a bluish discolouration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. The Chadwick sign usually presents six to eight weeks after conception and commonly disappears shortly after birth. Goodell's sign is an indication of pregnancy. It is a significant softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix from increased vascularization. This vascularisation is a result of hypertrophy and engorgement of the vessels below the growing uterus. Homans's sign is often used in the diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis of the leg. A positive Homans's sign (calf pain at dorsiflexion of the foot) is thought to be associated with the presence of thrombosis. Increased frequency of urination in pregnancy is normal unless accompanied by symptoms of a urinary tract infection. During Tui’s sixth week of pregnancy, she experienced a small episode of vaginal bleeding. You should suspect: a. Placenta previa b. Urinary tract infection c. Threatened abortion d. Abruption placenta c. Threatened abortion Tui asks for advice on diet. Which of the following is the best approach: a. Give her a list of the five basic food groups and tell her to include them in her daily intake b. Tell her to increase her caloric intake so she gains about 12 kg during the pregnancy c. Take a diet history that includes socioeconomic status, previous nutritional status and food preferences. d. Take a diet history, analyse it and say what foods she must now omit c. Take a diet history that includes socioeconomic status, previous nutritional status and food preferences. Four purposes of chromosomal studies, amniocentesis is most commonly performed: a. Anytime in early pregnancy b. Usually not until after the 12th week c. Usually not until after the 20th week d. Anytime during pregnancy b. Usually not until after the 12th week Tina, a midwife, tells an antenatal class that progesterone is considered the hormone most responsible for maintaining pregnancy. Where is the primary source of progesterone found throughout most of the pregnancy? a. The placenta b. The corpus luteum c. The ovary d. The pituitary gland a. The placenta Maori communities are encouraging Māori to be involved in health research with their own people. What is the most likely reason for this? a) That ownership of the information will remain with Māori b) Previously there has been little feedback which has been useful to Māori c) Non Māori promote themselves on Māori research d) Non Māori researchers are unaware of Māori values a) That ownership of the information will remain with Māori Traditional Māori health practices were outlawed by which of the following acts of parliament: a. Suppression of Rebellion Act 1860 b. Native Lands Act 1865 c. Suppression of Tohunga Act 1908 d. Constitution Act 1852 c. Suppression of Tohunga Act 1908 You are a public health nurse, who has completed a project on diabetes involving Māori clients. You are to visit the local marae to share the results. You are working in a bicultural relationship with the local Māori health initiative on diabetes. Which statement would best describe your role within this initiative: a. To set up a structure that allows access to funds b. To teach the Māori initiative about health reforms c. To provide resource materials and information d. To promote partnership, protection and participation in Māori health d. To promote partnership, protection and participation in Māori health You discover more than half the children at kohanga reo have not been vaccinated against hepatitis. What should your first action be: a. Discuss with the caregivers and parents what they wish to do about this b. Give these children hepatitis B vaccinations explaining that it is essential for their protection c. Report your findings to the health department as soon as possible d. Inform the Ministry of Education to gain funding for them to be immunised a. Discuss with the caregivers and parents what they wish to do about this It is important to engage in open communication with the caregivers and parents to understand their concerns, provide information about the importance of hepatitis B vaccination, and address any barriers or misconceptions they may have. This collaborative approach will help in making informed decisions regarding the vaccination of the children. Pepe has been discharged to a marae-based community house. How would you ensure his continued well-being: a. Set up regular appointments to monitor Pepe's well-being b. Explain to the community workers Pepe's requirements c. Arrange for Pepe to attend the local sheltered workshop d. Ensure Pepe and his whanau have ongoing support and access to resources d. Ensure Pepe and his whanau have ongoing support and access to resources Piripiri a 16-year-old street kid, with a history of alcohol and solvent abuse, is alienated from his Māori culture. He has expressed to you a desire to re-establish himself with his blood whanau and his culture. Choose the most appropriate initial action you would take to assist Piripiri in learning about his culture: a. Identify Piripiri’s tribal affiliations b. Locate the nearest marae c. Ask a Māori colleague for assistance d. Tell him not to be concerned, you can learn that later c. Ask a Māori colleague for assistance Piripiri has very little understanding of substance abuse. How would you begin to educate him: a. Give him some pamphlets and handouts b. Arrange an appointment with the doctor involved c. Invite his whanau to be involved with his learning d. Check that he can read and write d. Check that he can read and write How would you best assist Piripiri to stay free of substance abuse following discharge: a. Check that he is booked in for random urine tests b. Make sure he understands the consequences of continued abuse c. Stress the importance of keeping his follow-up appointments d. Provide whanau with ongoing support and resources d. Provide whanau with ongoing support and resources You are caring for Bill, a 50-year-old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. Which of the following symptoms would you anticipate observing in Bill: a. Elevated white blood cell count, ankle oedema and right groin pain b. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting c. Hypoglycaemia, hypertension, and hypochondrial pain d. Epigastric pain, pyrexia, and elevated white blood cell count b. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting You are caring for Bill, a 50-year-old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. The initial diagnosis of pancreatitis would be confirmed if bills blood test showed a significant elevation in serum: a. Amylase b. Glucose c. Potassium d. Trypsin a. Amylase Amylase is an enzyme that is typically elevated in cases of pancreatitis. You are caring for Bill, a 50-year-old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. Pain control is an important nursing goal. Which of the following medications would be the drug of choice: a. Pethidine b. Cimetidine c. Morphine d. Codeine c. Morphine Morphine is a potent analgesic that can effectively relieve severe pain associated with pancreatitis. You are caring for Bill, a 50-year-old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. You monitor Bill's vital signs frequently, observing for signs of shock. Shock is extremely difficult to manage in pancreatitis primarily because of the: a. Frequency and severity of gastrointestinal haemorrhage b. Vasodilating effects of kinin peptides c. The tendency towards congestive heart failure d. Frequent incidence of acute tubular necrosis a. Frequency and severity of gastrointestinal haemorrhage You are caring for Bill, a 50-year-old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. While helping Bill change position in bed, you note Bill has muscle twitching in his hands and forearms. These symptoms are significant because clients who suffer from pancreatitis are at risk of: a) Hypermagnesemia b) Hypoglycaemia c) Hypocalcaemia d) Hyponatremia c) Hypocalcaemia Pancreatitis can lead to calcium imbalances, including hypocalcaemia, which can manifest as muscle twitching. You are caring for Bill, a 50-year-old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. Bill does not drink alcohol because of his religious beliefs. When the physician persists in asking him about his alcohol intake, Bill becomes annoyed. You explain the reasoning behind the questioning by telling Bill that: a. There is a strong link between alcohol use and pancreatitis b. Alcohol intake can interfere with some of the tests used to diagnose pancreatitis c. Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about their alcohol intake d. The physician must obtain the pertinent facts, and religious beliefs cannot be considered b. Alcohol intake can interfere with some of the tests used to diagnose pancreatitis A home care nurse begins caring for a 25-year-old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Lydia asks the nurse, "How could this have happened?” the nurse responds to the question based on the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is: a) Hugging an HIV-positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions b) Inhaling cocaine or other recreational drugs c) Sharing a drink bottle with an HIV-positive person d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive person without using a condom d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive person without using a condom A home care nurse begins caring for a 25-year-old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The physician prescribes zidovudine (AZT) a drug that acts to help: a. Destroy the virus b. Enhance the body's antibody production c. Slow replication of the virus d. Neutralise toxin; produced by the causative organism c. Slow replication of the virus The primary reason that a herpes simplex infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV infection is that herpes simplex: a. Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness b. Is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy c. Can lead to cervical cancer d. Causes severe electrolyte imbalances a. Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness A home care nurse begins caring for a 25-year-old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)· In providing education to Lydia, the nurse should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is: a. Premarital serologic screening b. Prophylactic treatment of exposed people c. Laboratory screening of pregnant women d. Ongoing sex education about preventive behaviours d. Ongoing sex education about preventive behaviours A home care nurse begins caring for a 25-year-old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)· Which of the following nursing diagnosis categories would most likely be a priority for a client with herpes genitalis: a. Alteration in sleep; sleep pattern disturbance b. Nutritional deficit c. Alteration in comfort pain d. Alteration in breathing patterns c. Alteration in comfort pain A home care nurse begins caring for a 25-year-old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)· Lydia acquires herpes genitalis and is counselled by the nurse concerning follow-up care. Women who have this disease are at risk of developing a. Sterility b. Cervical cancer c. Uterine fibroid rumours d. Irregular menses b. Cervical cancer Winston, a 22-year-old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him. On Winston's arrival in the emergency room, which of the following considerations should receive the highest priority: a. establishing an airway b. replacing blood losses c. stopping bleeding from open wounds d. determining whether he has a neck fracture a. establishing an airway Winston, a 22-year-old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him. Which of the following methods would be best, from a legal standpoint, for obtaining permission to treat Winston? a. having his sister sign the consent form b. having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment c. obtaining a verbal consent by telephone from his mother d. obtaining written consent from his fiancée b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment Winston, a 22-year-old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him. As Winston's condition worsens, rising intracranial pressure would be indicated by: a. rising blood pressure and falling pulse rate b. rising pulse rate and falling blood pressure c. rising blood pressure and rising pulse rate d. falling pulse rate and falling blood pressure a. rising blood pressure and falling pulse rate Winston, a 22-year-old man, is brought to the emergency room with an apparent head injury after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious on arrival and exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure. His fiancée and his older sister accompany him. The nurse assesses the client frequently for signs of intracranial pressure, including: a. unequal pupil size b. decreasing systolic blood pressure c. tachycardia d. decreasing body temperature a. unequal pupil size Which of the following respiratory signs would indicate increasing intracranial pressure in the brain stem? a. slow, irregular respirations b. rapid, shallow respirations c. asymmetric chest expansion d. nasal flaring a. slow, irregular respirations Increasing intracranial pressure in the brain stem can lead to compression of the respiratory centres located in the brain stem. This compression can result in slow, irregular respirations, indicating that there is a problem with the brain's ability to regulate breathing. This is often seen in conditions such as brain injury, tumours, or other pathologies that affect the brain stem's function. According to Erickson’s theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense of trust when: a. They can identify their mother and father b. They feel a sense of belonging, accepted as part of the family c. They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met d. Nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis c. They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met Baby John was admitted with streptococcal pharyngitis. Upon discharge, his mother was told to return to the doctor in 2 weeks with a urine specimen. The urine would mostly be examined: a. For fat and lipids to see if the kidneys are working b. For protein to determine if acute glomerulonephritis is developing c. To determine if the child is developing otitis media d. To determine if the child should be kept on a liquid diet or progressed to a soft b) For protein to determine if acute glomerulonephritis is developing When a child is diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat), there is a risk of developing complications, one of which is acute glomerulonephritis. Acute glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory condition that can affect the kidneys, leading to the presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria). Therefore, the urine specimen is examined for the presence of protein to determine if this complication is developing. Monitoring for proteinuria is an important part of managing and assessing the patient's health after streptococcal pharyngitis. Reduction of complications of rheumatic fever can be accomplished through which of the following interventions: a. Administration of penicillin to children with strep throat or impetigo b. Beginning speech therapy to reserve damage after antibiotics are completed c. Pushing children with chorea to perform activities requiring fine motor movement to strengthen muscles d. Withholding salicylates to prevent joint haemorrhage a. Administration of penicillin to children with strep throat or impetigo Newborns with heart disease are frequently brought to health professionals initially because the infant is having: a. Difficulty sleeping b. Irritability and restlessness c. Difficulty feeding d. Cyanotic spells c. Difficulty feeding Newborns with heart disease often have difficulty feeding. This is because their heart condition may cause them to become tired more easily, making the act of feeding more challenging for them. Additionally, their inability to feed properly may result from their body's effort to conserve energy, leading to poor weight gain. While cyanotic spells can be a symptom of heart disease in some cases, difficulty feeding is a more common initial sign that may prompt parents to seek medical attention for their newborn. In heart defects in which a connection exists between the right and left heart, the blood through the connective structure flows most commonly: a. Right to left b. Left to right c. Bi directionally d. Through the mitral and tricuspid valves b. Left to right In heart defects where there is a connection between the right and left sides of the heart, the most common flow is from the left side of the heart to the right side. This means that oxygenated blood from the left side of the heart is shunted or flows into the right side of the heart, and then may be pumped back into the lungs for further oxygenation. This left-to-right shunting is characteristic of many congenital heart defects. Amy is 3 months old, with a 2-day history of vomiting. Which of the following is NOT indicative of a decreased hydration status: a. Sunken fontanelle b. Decreased number of wet nappies c. Skin that is hot to the touch d. Increased heart rate c. Skin that is hot to the touch Erikson's theory of human development describes: a. Eight psychosocial crises all people are thought to face b. Four psychosocial stages and a period of latency c. The same number of stages as Freud but with different names d. A stage theory that is not psychoanalytic a. Eight psychosocial crises all people are thought to face According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally characterises preschool children is the: a. Preoperational stage b. Sensorimotor stage c. Oral stage d. Psychosocial stage a. Preoperational stage Sensorimotor stage (0-2 years old) Preoperational stage (2-7 years old) Concrete operational stage (7-11 years old) Formal operational stage (11 years old through adulthood) The cephalo-caudal and proximo-distal patterns of development apply to: a) The upper extremities only b) Physical growth, but not to motor skills c) Variations in the timing of motor skills acquisition d) Motor abilities as well as physical growth d) Motor abilities as well as physical growth Cephalo-caudal development refers to the pattern of development where growth and motor control tend to occur from the head (cephalic) down to the feet (caudal), meaning that motor skills and physical development often start in the head region and progress downward. Proximo-distal development refers to the pattern where development occurs from the centre or core of the body (proximal) outward to the extremities (distal). This means that motor skills and physical growth often start in the central parts of the body and then extend to the limbs or extremities. An infant who weighs 4kg is prescribed 0.2mg/kg (IV) of morphine sulphate. You have an ampoule of 10mg in 1ml. the volume to be administered is: a) 8 mls b) 0.8 mls c) 0.08 mls d) 0.8 mgs c) 0.08 mls 4kg x 0.2mg = 0.8mgs 0.8mg / 10mg = 0.08mls Pediculosis is a common childhood infestation. It is commonly known as: a. Pinworms b. Foot eczema c. Head lice d. Scabies c. Head lice All infants should have their head circumference measured at health visits. This measurement is made from: a. Just above the eyebrows through the prominent part of the occiput b. The centre of the forehead to the base of the occiput c. The hairline in front to the hairline in back d. The middle of the forehead through the parietal prominence a. Just above the eyebrows through the prominent part of the occiput While caring for a child recovering from viral pneumonia, you examine his lungs for evidence of exudate and fluid. Which finding would suggest cause for concern: a. A respiratory rate of 20 heard on auscultation b. Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion c. A longer inspiratory than expiratory rate noticed on inspection d. Fine rhonchi heard in the upper lobe on auscultation b. Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion Dullness can indicate the presence of consolidation, which is a sign of a more severe lung infection. Consolidation occurs when the alveoli in the lungs become filled with exudate (a thick fluid) and pus, and it can lead to impaired lung function and oxygen exchange. This finding suggests that there may be a significant accumulation of exudate and fluid in the lower lobes of the lungs, which could compromise the child's respiratory function and requires close medical attention. A child who has an arterial blood gas that depicts respiratory acidosis will show: a. pH is acidic, PaO2 is raised and PaCO2 is raised b. pH is acidic, PaO2 is raised and PaCO is lowered c. pH is acidic, PaO2 is lowered and PaCO2 is raised d. pH is alkalotic, PaO2 is lowered and Pa CO2 is raised c. pH is acidic, PaO2 is lowered and PaCO2 is raised In respiratory acidosis, the pH of the blood is acidic (lower than the normal range), the PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood) is typically lowered, and the PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood) is raised. This condition indicates that there is an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood, which can lead to an increase in acidity. It is often caused by conditions that impair the respiratory system's ability to eliminate CO2, such as lung diseases, airway obstruction, or respiratory depression. You take an infant’s apical pulse before administering digoxin. What is the usually accepted level of pulse rate considered safe for administering digoxin to an 8-month-old baby: a. 60 bpm b. 80 bpm c. 100 bpm d. 150 bpm c. 100 bpm Which of the following nursing diagnoses would best apply to a child with rheumatic fever? a. Ineffective breathing pattern related to cardiomegaly b. Activity intolerance related to the inability of the heart to sustain extra workload c. Sleep pattern disturbance related to hyper-excitability d. High risk of violence related to the development of cerebral anoxia b. Activity intolerance related to the inability of the heart to sustain extra workload Bronchiolitis is a common __________ infection, which peaks in incidence in children aged __________. Symptoms usually peak around day __________ a. Viral, less than two years of age, three to five b. Viral, less than six months, ten c. Bacterial, less than two years, three to five d. Bacterial, less than six months, three to five a. Viral, less than two years of age, three to five The responsibility of the nurse caring for a victim of child abuse in the emergency room would include which of the following: a. Prohibiting her parents from visiting with the child until more facts are obtained b. Asking the parents if they have been abusing their child c. Suggesting to the medical staff that the child be admitted for observation d. Asking the child what they were doing that led to abuse c. Suggesting to the medical staff that the child be admitted for observation Which of the following statements is NOT true: a. Health professionals recommended exclusive breastfeeding until the age of 4 months b. Uterine involution is slowed by breastfeeding c. Almost all drugs are excreted to some extent in breast mild d. Oxytocin is released by breastfeeding b. Uterine involution is slowed by breastfeeding Uterine involution is the process by which the uterus returns to its non-pregnant size and state after childbirth. Breastfeeding can help stimulate uterine involution. When a baby breastfeeds, it triggers the release of oxytocin, which causes the uterine muscles to contract. Which of the following statements is NOT true of Reyes syndrome? a. Most commonly occurs In young school-age children b. Most commonly occurs after a viral infection c. Symptoms include severe vomiting, irritability, lethargy and confusion d. Aspirin is the treatment of choice d. Aspirin is the treatment of choice Aspirin has been linked with Reye's syndrome, so use caution when giving aspirin to children or teenagers for fever or pain. Though aspirin is approved for use in children older than age 3, children and teenagers recovering from chickenpox or flu-like symptoms should never take aspirin. Which of the following statements is NOT true of bacterial meningitis? a. Bacterial meningitis often presents with flu-like symptoms initially b. A rash may or may not be present c. There is usually no associated temperature rise d. A rash, if present, does not blanch under direct pressure c. There is usually no associated temperature rise The grandmother has brought an infant to the clinic for a check-up and has signed the consent for immunisation administration. Which of the following would the nurse do first? a. ask who the infant's legal guardian is b. notify the physician immediately c. administer the immunisations ordered d. call the infant‟s mother for verbal consent a. ask who the infant's legal guardian is Type I (insulin-dependent) diabetes is characterised by almost no __________ secretion. This contributes to a build-up of __________ in the bloodstream. If exogenous insulin is not administered __________ and __________ will develop a. Insulin, glucose, hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis b. Glucose, insulin, hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis c. Glucose, insulin, hypoglycaemia, and unconsciousness d. Insulin, hormones, ketoacidosis and unconsciousness a) Insulin, glucose, hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis Which of the following would the nurse explain to the mother of a child receiving digoxin (lanoxin) as the primary reason for giving this drug: a. To relax the walls of the heart's arteries b. To improve the strength of the heartbeat c. To prevent irregularities in ventricular contractions d. To decrease inflammation of the heart wall b. To improve the strength of the heartbeat Paralysis in an individual with a meningomyelocele usually occurs: a. In the motor sphere below the level of the deformity b. In the motor and sensory sphere below the level of the deformity c. In the motor sphere above the deformity d. In the motor and sensory spheres above the deformity b. In the motor and sensory sphere below the level of the deformity During the acute state of meningitis, a 3-year-old child is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute: a. Haemorrhagic skin rash b. Oedema c. Cyanosis d. Dyspnea on exertion a. Haemorrhagic skin rash Meningitis can be a serious condition, and the presence of a hemorrhagic skin rash can be a concerning sign. It may indicate a more severe form of the disease, such as bacterial meningitis, which can be associated with a petechial or purpuric rash. Recognizing this rash is important because it can help with the early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. Restlessness and irritability can also be symptoms of meningitis, and prompt medical attention is crucial in this situation. Oedema, cyanosis, and dyspnea on exertion are not typically associated with the acute state of meningitis. Which of the following would first alert the nurse to suspect that a child with severe gastroenteritis who has been receiving intravenous therapy for the past several hours may be developing circulatory overload: a. A drop in blood pressure b. Change to slow, deep respirations c. Auscultation of moist crackles d. Marked increase in urine output c. Auscultation of moist crackles The causative organism for rheumatic fever is: a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Staphylococcus bacteria c. Syncytial virus d. Group A streptococcal bacteria d. Group A streptococcal bacteria The most serious complication of rheumatic fever is: a) Endocarditis b) Pneumonia c) Arthritis d) Meningitis a) Endocarditis When preparing the teaching plan for the mother of a child with asthma, which of the following would the nurse include as signs to alert the mother that her child is having an asthma attack? a. Secretion of this, copious mucous b. Tight, productive cough c. Wheezing on expiration d. Temperature of 37.4C c. Wheezing on expiration An 8-year-old child with asthma states, "I want to play some sports like my friends, what can I do?" The nurse responds to the child based on the understanding of which of the following: a. Physical activities are inappropriate for children with asthma b. Children with asthma must be excluded from team sports c. Vigorous physical exercise frequently precipitates an asthmatic episode d. Most children with asthma can participate in sports if the asthma is controlled d. Most children with asthma can participate in sports if the asthma is controlled After instructing a mother about the normal reflexes of term neonates, the nurse determines that the mother understands the instructions when she describes the tonic neck reflex as occurring when the neonate does which of the following: a. Steps briskly when held upright near a firm, hard surface b. Pulls both arms and does not move the chin beyond the point of the elbows c. Turns head to the left, extends left extremities, and flexes right extremities d. Extends and abducts the arms and legs with the toes fanning open c. Turns head to the left, extends left extremities, and flexes right extremities The tonic neck reflex, also known as the "fencing reflex," occurs when the baby turns their head to one side. When the neonate turns their head to the left, they will extend the left extremities (arm and leg) while flexing the right extremities (arm and leg), creating a posture that resembles a fencer's position. This reflex typically disappears as the baby grows and develops. After talking with the parents of a child with Down’s Syndrome, which of the following would the nurse identify as an appropriate goal for the care of the child? a. Encouraging self-care skills in the child b. Teaching the child something new every day c. Encouraging more lenient behaviour limits for the child d. Achieving age-appropriate social skills a. Encouraging self-care skills in the child For a child with Down's Syndrome, it is appropriate to set a goal of encouraging self-care skills. Children with Down's Syndrome can develop self-care skills, such as dressing themselves, feeding, and basic hygiene, with appropriate support and guidance. The goal is to promote independence and functional skills to the best of the child's abilities. After teaching a group of school teachers about seizures, the teachers role-play a scenario involving a child experiencing a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions, when performed first, indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful? a. Asking the other children what happened before the seizure b. Moving the child to the nurse's office for privacy c. Removing any nearby objects that could harm the child d. Placing a padded tongue blade between the child’s teeth c. Removing any nearby objects that could harm the child Which of the following statements obtained from the nursing history of a toddler would alert the nurse to suspect the child has had a febrile seizure? a. The child has had a low-grade fever for several weeks b. The family history is negative for convulsions c. The seizure resulted in respiratory arrest d. The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection d. The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection Which is NOT one of the five major outcomes in improving the quality of health and well-being? a. Positive, supportive living and working conditions in all communities b. Opportunities for healthy development and support for individual choices that enhance and foster independence c. Appropriate and affordable health services that are accessible to all d. Creation of a wider variety of healthcare agencies d. Creation of a wider variety of healthcare agencies Which of the following does NOT comprise one principle of the Treaty of Waitangi? a. Partnership b. Protection c. Participation d. Portability d. Portability Why is New Zealand's population ageing? a. declining fertility rates b. increased replacement fertility rates c. increased mortality d. the baby boom generation are expanding d. the baby boom generation are expanding An example of the use of primary prevention for family violence is: a. working to eliminate the glamorisation of violence on television b. counselling a woman living in an abusive relationship about available shelter programs c. calling child protective services regarding a school-age child who has reported sexual attacks by her stepfather d. carefully examining the skin of an elder who has just returned to an extended care facility following a weekend with his children a. working to eliminate the glamorisation of violence on television Male circumcision has been shown to: a. reduce transmission of HIV b. increase the risk of contracting an STI c. reduce sexual pleasure d. increase risk of UTI a. reduce transmission of HIV A 42-year-old woman is interested in making dietary changes to reduce her risk of colon cancer. What dietary selections would the nurse suggest? a. croissants, peanut butter, sandwiches, whole milk b. bran muffin, skim milk, stir-fried broccoli c. bagel with cream cheese, cauliflower salad d. oatmeal, baked potato, ham sandwich b. bran muffin, skim milk, stir-fried broccoli High-fibre, low-fat diets are recommended to reduce the risk of colon cancer. Stir-frying, poaching, steaming, and broiling are all low-fat methods to prepare foods. Croissants are made of refined flour. They are also high in fat, as are peanut butter squares and whole milk, granola, cream cheese, and sour cream. The nurse is teaching a woman, aged 25, about breast self-examination (BSE). The correct teaching is that BSE: a. detects malignancy more often than professional examinations b. allows her to delay the need for mammography until she is 50 c. helps her learn the normal characteristics of her own breasts d. is more accurate than a yearly mammogram c. helps her learn the normal characteristics of her own breasts The school nurse is invited to attend a meeting with several parents who express frustration with the amount of time their adolescents spend in front of the mirror and the length of time it takes them to get dressed. The nurse explains that this behaviour is indicative of which of the following: a. an abnormal narcissism b. a method of procrastination c. a way of testing the parents limit setting d. a result of developing self-concept d. a result of developing self-concept When teaching about the use of tampons, the nurse should emphasise replacing them at least every four hours to prevent: a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. vasomotor symptoms c. sexually transmitted infections d. toxic shock syndrome d. toxic shock syndrome A mother concerned that her child's rash could be measles brings her child to a nurse-managed setting. This is an example of: a. continuing care b. primary care c. restorative care d. secondary care b. primary care In childhood disorders, there are different types of problems such as symptom-based disorders. One such disorder is known as enuresis, which means: a. sleepwalking b. bedwetting c. lack of bowel control d. stammering b. bedwetting Children with ADHD are known to have deficits in executive functioning and specifically have difficulty inhibiting responses. Which of the following brain areas normally controls these types of functions? a. the thalamus b. the amygdala c. the parietal lobes d. the frontal lobes d. the frontal lobes Thalamus: processing and transmitting sensory information to different parts of the brain, allowing you to perceive and interpret various sensations. Amygdala: The amygdala is involved in processing and regulating emotions, particularly those related to fear and emotional memories. It plays a crucial role in the brain's emotional and stress responses and can influence emotional learning and memory. Parietal lobes: The parietal lobes are involved in various functions related to sensory processing, spatial perception, and body awareness. Th