TCCC TIER 3 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | NEWEST UPDATED 2026/2027 | GRADED A+ | 100% GUARANTEED SUCCESS.

TCCC TIER 3 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | NEWEST UPDATED 2026/2027 | GRADED A+ | 100% GUARANTEED SUCCESS. What is a likely cause of altered mental status in a trauma casualty on the battlefield? RATIONALE Although both a Traumatic Brain Injury and Hypoxia can cause an altered mental status on the battlefield, studies have shown that Hypovolemia is the likely cause of altered mental status in trauma casualties. Why is it important to communicate with a casualty throughout the delivery of care? a. Frank and reassuring communication can help decrease the casualty's anxiety b. The casualty needs to understand the potential impact their injuries will have on the mission c. Casualties can pass on information to other first responders d. Casualties should understand what is being done since they are required to sign consent forms before treatment - ANSWER a. Frank and reassuring communication can help decrease the casualty's anxiety RATIONALE The Combat Medic/Corpsman will continuously communicate with the casualty (if possible) by encouraging, reassuring, and explaining each step of care being rendered. Being wounded can cause significant anxiety and fear above and beyond the psychological trauma of combat. Talking frankly with the casualty about their injuries and offering reassurance by describing the treatments being rendered and emphasizing that everything possible is being done to care for them can help decrease their anxiety. Be honest about the injuries sustained but maintain a positive attitude about treatment and timely evacuation. Talking with the casualty helps assess their mental status, while talking through procedures helps maintain your own focus and confidence as well as the casualty's confidence in you. A casualty is leaning forward with her hands placed on her knees to support her a. Use of recreational drugs b. Sleep deprivation c. Poor nutrition d. Blood loss - ANSWER d. Blood loss upper body. How would you describe what this casualty is doing? a. Sternal retractions b. Tripod respirations c. Nasal flaring d. Labored breathing - ANSWER b. Tripod respirations RATIONALE Tripod respirations - The patient will sit or stand leaning forward while supporting the upper body with the hands on the knees to facilitate breathing. If a penetrating eye injury is suspected, you should perform a _______________________. RATIONALE If a penetrating eye injury is noted or suspected, perform a rapid field test of visual acuity and document findings. Rapid visual acuity testing includes the ability to read print, count fingers, identity hand motion, and/or differentiate light from dark. Using the Rule of Nines, what percent of body surface area is considered burned if the entire anterior torso and the front and back of both lower extremities are burned? RATIONALE Eleven areas each have 9% body surface area (head, upper extremities, front and back of lower extremities, and front and back of the torso having two 9% areas each). General guidelines are that the size of the palm of the hand represents approximately 1% of the burned area. When estimating, it is easiest to round up to the nearest 10. If half of the front or rear area is burned, the area would be half of the area value. For example, if the entire anterior torso and the front and back of both lower extremities are burned, it would be (9% x 4) + 18% = 54%. What is the most common cause of preventable combat death? a. Rapid field test of visual acuity b. Neurological exam c. Traumatic brain injury evaluation questionnaire d. Gait and balance assessment - ANSWER a. Rapid field test of visual acuity a. 35% b. 37% c. 45% d. 54% - ANSWER d. 54% RATIONALE The leading causes of preventable death on the battlefield are due to traumatic injuries including hemorrhage, both from the extremities and from junctional areas, tension pneumothorax, and airway trauma or obstruction. By far, the majority of the preventable deaths are from massive hemorrhage. Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines recommend that combat trauma casualties without a pulse or respirations should have ____________________ performed during Tactical Field Care (TFC) due to the potential benefit and clear absence of additional harm. a. Active hypothermia measures b. Tourniquet application c. Bilateral needle decompression of the chest d. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation - ANSWER c. Bilateral needle decompression of the chest RATIONALE During TFC, several authors and subject matter experts recommend that for combat trauma casualties without a pulse, bilateral NDCs should be performed due to the potential benefit and clear absence of additional harm. As a result, the TCCC Guidelines now state: ".... casualties with torso trauma or polytrauma who have no pulse or respirations during TFC should have bilateral needle decompression performed to ensure they do not have a tension pneumothorax prior to discontinuation of care." On inspection of the back, a trauma casualty has a hematoma and localized lower back pain that radiates down the legs. You suspect this casualty has a _________________. RATIONALE Spinal fractures often present with localized spinal pain, or pain radiating down the extremities from nerve irritation, and may include a deformity at the point of injury, a hematoma, or crepitus. In some cases, motor function can be affected leading to partial or complete paralysis, and sensation can be diminished or absent. A casualty in hemorrhagic shock received one unit of low-titer group O whole blood and now has a palpable radial pulse with a blood pressure of 112/70. What should the Combat Medic/Corpsman do next? a. Continue to monitor the casualty and transfuse if there is a clinical a. Tension pneumothorax b. Airway problems c. Shock d. Hemorrhage - ANSWER d. Hemorrhage a. Femur fracture b. Spinal fracture c. Pelvic fracture d. Compound fracture - ANSWER b. Spinal fracture deterioration b. Give a second unit of low-titer group O whole blood c. Start a crystalloid infusion d. Transfuse 1 unit of plasma - ANSWER a. Continue to monitor the casualty and transfuse if there is a clinical deterioration RATIONALE Casualties being treated for hemorrhagic shock with low-titer group O whole blood should be reassessed to see if they meet the criteria for discontinuation of resuscitation - the return of radial pulses or a systolic BP 100 or improved mental status. If these parameters are not met, then continue resuscitation attempts, reassessing after every unit. Which of the following is a benefit of communicating with the casualty during Tactical Field Care? a. Facilitate handoff of casualty information to medical personnel b. Ease the casualty's fears and help explain care c. Expedite the casualty evacuation process d. Provide the necessary information for the first section of the 9-Line evacuation request - ANSWER b. Ease the casualty's fears and help explain care RATIONALE Communicating with the casualty is vitally important for several reasons. One is to help calm and reassure the casualty in what is likely the most stressful situation that they have ever experienced. If they are calmer, they will follow your instructions more closely, which may result in a better outcome. Communicate with the casualty, if possible, to encourage, reassure, and explain care each step of the way. You are evaluating a casualty using the AVPU method for determining the level of consciousness. The casualty does not respond when you ask them questions in a loud voice but reacts to pain when you rub their sternum briskly with your knuckle. You should classify the casualty's level of consciousness as: Alertness Verbal responsive Pain responsive Unconscious state - ANSWER Pain responsive RATIONALE Formally assessing the level of consciousness is a straightforward process. It involves 3 basic steps:First, ask in a loud but calm voice, "Are you okay?" If the casualty answers coherently, then they are an A, or Alert on the AVPU scale.However, if the casualty does not answer or mumbles, you should repeat in a loud but calm voice, "Are you okay?" to make sure they weren't just distracted. If the answer is not clear, ask the casualty to squeeze your finger or move an arm or leg. If they respond to your command, they are a V, or Verbally responsive.If they do not respond to voice commands, rub the sternum briskly with a knuckle or squeeze the first or second toe over the toenail, or if the casualty is wearing individual body armor, pinch their nose or earlobe (do not use injuries). If the casualty responds in any way to pain stimuli, they are a P, or Pain responsive.If the casualty does not respond to any of these 3 attempts, they are a U, or Unresponsive. Assuming that all are available, which of the following should be transfused first in the management of hemorrhagic shock? a. Plasma or red blood cells (RBCs) alone b. Cold-stored low-titer O whole blood c. Pre-screened low-titer O fresh whole blood d. Plasma, RBCs and platelets in a 1:1:1 ratio - ANSWER b. Cold-stored low-titer O whole blood RATIONALE Casualties who show signs and symptoms of shock should have intravenous or intraosseous access established so that blood products can be administered. The order of preference for blood product administration in shock is: Cold-stored low-titer O whole blood Pre-screened low-titer O fresh whole blood Plasma, RBCs and platelets in a 1:1:1 ratio Plasma and RBCs in a 1:1 ratio Plasma or RBCs alone What is considered a primary objective of pain management on the battlefield? a. To preserve the fighting force b. To sedate casualties c. To keep casualties from further hurting themselves d. To prevent discovery of a casualty's location by enemy combatants - ANSWER a. To preserve the fighting force RATIONALE The primary objectives of pain management are to preserve the fighting force, to achieve rapid and maximal relief of pain from combat wounds, and to minimize the likelihood of adverse effects on the casualty from the analgesic medications being used. Which mechanism of injury is most likely to cause a pelvic fracture? a. Gunshot wound to the lower leg b. Dismounted improvised explosive device (IED) attack c. Tripping while running in full battle gear d. 50% burn including the pelvis and legs - ANSWER b. Dismounted improvised explosive device (IED) attack RATIONALE Most pelvic fractures are associated with dismounted IED attacks accompanied by amputations, but they also occur in severe blunt trauma (such as motor vehicle crashes, aircraft mishaps, hard parachute landings, and falls). The casualty and you are protected from enemy fire. The casualty has a wound to their right leg and is in pain. You have controlled the bleeding using a pressure bandage. The casualty is alert, sitting up, and not in respiratory distress. You can easily palpate their radial pulse. How should you manage this casualty's pain? a. Loosen the pressure bandage b. Administer intravenous ketamine c. Administer the casualty's Combat Wound Medication Pack (CWMP) d. Administer intramuscular morphine - ANSWER c. Administer the casualty's Combat Wound Medication Pack (CWMP) RATIONALE As per the TCCC Guidelines, this casualty falls under option #1. Option #1 is for casualties who have mild to moderate pain and are able to fight. For option #1, the treatment consists of the medications in the Combat Wound Medication Pack and does not need to involve a Combat Medic, although you may recommend that a casualty take their own CWMP if they haven't done so, already. Which of the following is applied to stop life-threatening limb bleeding during Care Under Fire? RATIONALE Per the TCCC Guidelines, treatment priorities in CUF include extracting casualties from burning vehicles or buildings and stopping life-threatening hemorrhage using limb tourniquets, if tactically feasible. If you can do only ONE thing for the casualty, identify and stop lifethreatening bleeding, and keep them from bleeding to death by using a CoTCCCrecommended tourniquet. a. Hemostatic dressing b. Tourniquet c. Pressure dressing d. Manual pressure - ANSWER b. Tourniquet Who is responsible for documenting the casualty's injuries and care provided on the DD Form 1380? a. Whoever is providing care at the point of injury b. The Combat Medic/Corpsman c. The highest-ranking medical officer at the point of wounding d. The evacuation team - ANSWER a. Whoever is providing care at the point of injury RATIONALE Documentation on the DD Form 1380 TCCC Card should be completed by whoever is providing care at the point of injury or wounding and updated with any changes in the casualty's status or additional care rendered by all subsequent prehospital providers. What can the Combat Medic/Corpsman do in the field to prevent external rotation of the lower extremities and improve the effect of the Pelvic Compression Device (PCD) in a casualty with a displaced pelvic fracture? a. Apply the PCD with the casualty laying on a litter b. Instruct another available rescuer to stabilize the pelvis while applying the PCD c. Use two pelvic compression devices attached to each other d. Secure the knees and/or feet together - ANSWER d. Secure the knees and/or feet together RATIONALE External rotation of the lower extremities is commonly seen in casualties with displaced pelvic fractures, which may increase the dislocation of pelvic fragments. The Combat Medic/Corpsman should secure the knees and/or feet together to prevent external rotation and improve the effectiveness of the PCD. Trends in vital signs (VS) provide insight into the casualty's clinical course that help the responder identify the need for interventions or assessments earlier than would happen with a single set of VS, but when caring for multiple casualties, it is very difficult to remember the VS of each casualty and the changes that occur over time. Which of the following would help the CMC accurately monitor VS trends for multiple casualties? a. Monitor VS in the same sequence each time to facilitate remembering b. Focus on the most severely injured casualty since they are most likely to have changes in VS c. Enlist the help of other CMCs to help trend VS on multiple casualties d. Document VS on the DD Form 1380 TCCC Casualty Card after each assessment - ANSWER d. Document VS on the DD Form 1380 TCCC Casualty Card after each assessment RATIONALE