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Rasmussen Univ NUR 2502 Exam 2 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 3 Q&A | Med-Surg Nursing

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Master advanced multi-system medical-surgical concepts and excel on your mid-course milestone with this premier high-yield study resource for Rasmussen University NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3) Exam 2. Fully optimized for the 2026/2027 academic syllabus, this comprehensive PDF features verified exam-style questions, accurate answers, and intensive clinical rationales. Inside, you will unlock deep coverage of complex adult health alterations, focusing heavily on critical renal, hepatic, and gastrointestinal crises that require rapid prioritization and nursing intervention.

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Institution
NUR 2502
Course
NUR 2502

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Rasmussen University NUR 2502 Exam 2 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 3
Q&A | Med-Surg Nursing

1. A client with head and neck cancer is undergoing radiation therapy. Which
side effect should the nurse teach the client to expect?

A) Hypertension and tachycardia

B) Dry mouth and altered taste

C) Increased appetite and weight gain

D) Polyuria and polydipsia



Correct Answer: Dry mouth and altered taste



Rationale: Radiation therapy for head and neck cancer commonly causes
xerostomia (dry mouth), altered taste, sore throat, and skin irritation. These
side effects can significantly impact nutrition and quality of life. The client
should be encouraged to use moisturizing sprays, increase water intake, and
use humidification.



2. A client is one day post-operative following a total laryngectomy. Which
nursing action is the priority?

A) Maintaining a patent airway

B) Providing emotional support

C) Initiating nutritional support

D) Consulting speech therapy



Correct Answer: Maintaining a patent airway



Rationale: The first priority after a laryngectomy is airway maintenance and
gas exchange. The nurse should monitor the airway patency, suction as
needed, and assess for complications such as hemorrhage and wound
breakdown. A patent airway is the foundation for all other aspects of care.

,3. The nurse is assessing a client with a nasal fracture. Clear fluid draining
from the nose should be tested for which substance to rule out a
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak?

A) Creatinine

B) Glucose

C) Protein

D) Chloride



Correct Answer: Glucose



Rationale: Clear nasal drainage after a nasal fracture may indicate a
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The drainage should be tested for glucose, as
CSF contains glucose. A positive glucose test is highly suggestive of a CSF
leak and requires further evaluation.



4. A client is experiencing epistaxis. In which position should the nurse place
the client?

A) Supine with the head turned to the side

B) Sitting upright and leaning forward

C) Trendelenburg position

D) High Fowler's with the head tilted back



Correct Answer: Sitting upright and leaning forward



Rationale: For a client with epistaxis, the nurse should place the client in a
sitting position and leaning forward. This position prevents the client from
swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or aspiration, and allows blood to
drain out of the nose.

,5. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for the
development of head and neck cancer?

A) High-fat diet

B) Tobacco and alcohol use

C) Lack of exercise

D) Occupational exposure to dust



Correct Answer: Tobacco and alcohol use



Rationale: Tobacco and alcohol use are the two major risk factors for head
and neck cancer, especially when used in combination. Chronic irritation
from these substances can lead to cellular changes and the development of
squamous cell carcinomas.



6. A nurse is teaching a client with obstructive sleep apnea about treatment
options. Which intervention should the nurse include?

A) Sleeping in a supine position

B) Using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device

C) Increasing alcohol consumption before bedtime

D) Taking sedatives to promote sleep



Correct Answer: Using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device



Rationale: CPAP is a standard treatment for obstructive sleep apnea. It
provides positive airway pressure to keep the airway open during sleep.
Supine positioning, alcohol, and sedatives can worsen sleep apnea by
relaxing the upper airway muscles.



7. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which
instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

, A) "Use this medication as a rescue inhaler for acute symptoms."

B) "Rinse your mouth with water after each use."

C) "This medication will work immediately to relieve bronchospasm."

D) "You can stop using this medication once you feel better."



Correct Answer: "Rinse your mouth with water after each use."



Rationale: Inhaled corticosteroids can cause oral candidiasis (thrush). Rinsing
the mouth with water after each use helps prevent this complication. These
medications are for long-term control, not acute relief, and should not be
stopped abruptly.



8. A client is experiencing status asthmaticus. Which assessment finding is
most concerning?

A) Audible wheezing

B) Decreased wheezing with diminished breath sounds

C) Tachypnea

D) Use of accessory muscles



Correct Answer: Decreased wheezing with diminished breath sounds



Rationale: In status asthmaticus, a sudden decrease in wheezing with
diminished breath sounds is a concerning sign indicating airway obstruction
and impending respiratory failure. The "silent chest" is a medical emergency
requiring immediate intervention.



9. A client with COPD is prescribed a long-acting bronchodilator. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding of the medication?

A) "I will use this medication when I have sudden shortness of breath."

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Course
NUR 2502

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