NEWEST APEA/AANP FNP PREDICTOR-STYLE
PRACTICE EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND
ANSWRRS ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A patient started an SSRI medication 3 months ago and reports increased appetite and a 10-
pound weight gain. Which medication side effect is most likely occurring?
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Rationale: SSRIs may cause weight changes, including increased appetite and weight gain,
especially with long-term use.
2. A patient taking warfarin reports bleeding gums and easy bruising. Which laboratory test
should the nurse practitioner review?
Correct Answer: INR
Rationale: INR monitoring evaluates anticoagulation effectiveness and bleeding risk in patients
taking warfarin.
3. A patient presents with a painful vesicular rash following a unilateral dermatomal pattern.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Rationale: Shingles presents as painful grouped vesicles following a single dermatome.
4. The first-line treatment for uncomplicated tinea corporis is:
Correct Answer: Topical antifungal cream
,Rationale: Ringworm infections are treated initially with topical antifungal agents such as
terbinafine or clotrimazole.
5. Which organism is commonly responsible for community-acquired pneumonia?
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae remains a leading cause of bacterial pneumonia.
6. A child with barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness most likely has:
Correct Answer: Croup
Rationale: Croup is caused by viral inflammation of the upper airway, producing a barking
cough.
7. The recommended screening test for colorectal cancer in average-risk adults begins at age:
Correct Answer: 45 years
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend colorectal cancer screening beginning at age 45 for
average-risk adults.
8. A patient with diabetes has a fasting glucose level of 145 mg/dL. This finding indicates:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL on repeat testing supports diagnosis of
diabetes.
9. A patient with hypothyroidism is most likely to report:
Correct Answer: Fatigue and cold intolerance
Rationale: Low thyroid hormone levels slow metabolism and commonly cause fatigue, weight
gain, and cold intolerance.
, 10. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: MMR vaccine
Rationale: Live vaccines such as MMR should not be administered during pregnancy.
11. A patient with hypertension and chronic kidney disease would benefit most from:
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor therapy
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection.
12. A patient taking metformin should be monitored for:
Correct Answer: Renal function
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal impairment due to risk of lactic acidosis.
13. A common symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia is:
Correct Answer: Urinary hesitancy
Rationale: BPH causes lower urinary tract symptoms including weak stream, hesitancy, and
nocturia.
14. The most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is a major bacterial pathogen causing middle ear infections.
15. A patient with asthma uses albuterol daily. The provider should consider:
Correct Answer: Adding a controller medication
Rationale: Frequent rescue inhaler use indicates poor asthma control and need for maintenance
therapy.
16. The preferred initial screening test for cervical cancer is:
PRACTICE EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND
ANSWRRS ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A patient started an SSRI medication 3 months ago and reports increased appetite and a 10-
pound weight gain. Which medication side effect is most likely occurring?
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Rationale: SSRIs may cause weight changes, including increased appetite and weight gain,
especially with long-term use.
2. A patient taking warfarin reports bleeding gums and easy bruising. Which laboratory test
should the nurse practitioner review?
Correct Answer: INR
Rationale: INR monitoring evaluates anticoagulation effectiveness and bleeding risk in patients
taking warfarin.
3. A patient presents with a painful vesicular rash following a unilateral dermatomal pattern.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Rationale: Shingles presents as painful grouped vesicles following a single dermatome.
4. The first-line treatment for uncomplicated tinea corporis is:
Correct Answer: Topical antifungal cream
,Rationale: Ringworm infections are treated initially with topical antifungal agents such as
terbinafine or clotrimazole.
5. Which organism is commonly responsible for community-acquired pneumonia?
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae remains a leading cause of bacterial pneumonia.
6. A child with barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness most likely has:
Correct Answer: Croup
Rationale: Croup is caused by viral inflammation of the upper airway, producing a barking
cough.
7. The recommended screening test for colorectal cancer in average-risk adults begins at age:
Correct Answer: 45 years
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend colorectal cancer screening beginning at age 45 for
average-risk adults.
8. A patient with diabetes has a fasting glucose level of 145 mg/dL. This finding indicates:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL on repeat testing supports diagnosis of
diabetes.
9. A patient with hypothyroidism is most likely to report:
Correct Answer: Fatigue and cold intolerance
Rationale: Low thyroid hormone levels slow metabolism and commonly cause fatigue, weight
gain, and cold intolerance.
, 10. Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: MMR vaccine
Rationale: Live vaccines such as MMR should not be administered during pregnancy.
11. A patient with hypertension and chronic kidney disease would benefit most from:
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor therapy
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection.
12. A patient taking metformin should be monitored for:
Correct Answer: Renal function
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal impairment due to risk of lactic acidosis.
13. A common symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia is:
Correct Answer: Urinary hesitancy
Rationale: BPH causes lower urinary tract symptoms including weak stream, hesitancy, and
nocturia.
14. The most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is a major bacterial pathogen causing middle ear infections.
15. A patient with asthma uses albuterol daily. The provider should consider:
Correct Answer: Adding a controller medication
Rationale: Frequent rescue inhaler use indicates poor asthma control and need for maintenance
therapy.
16. The preferred initial screening test for cervical cancer is:
