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NUR612/NUR612 Final Exam V1 | Advance Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | William Paterson University

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NUR612/NUR612 Final Exam V1 | Advance Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | William Paterson University

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NUR612/NUR612 Final Exam V1 | Advance
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
William Paterson University
1. When calculating the Volume of Distribution (Vd), what does a high Vd suggest about a

drug’s behavior in the body?

A. The drug is primarily confined to the plasma compartment.


B. The drug is extensively distributed into peripheral tissues.


C. The drug has a very high rate of renal clearance.


D. The drug is highly bound to plasma albumin.


Answer: B


Rationale: A high volume of distribution indicates that the drug is moving out of the

bloodstream and into the tissues. This often occurs with lipophilic drugs that can easily

cross cell membranes. Understanding Vd is crucial for determining the loading dose

required to achieve a target plasma concentration.


2. Which of the following monitoring parameters is most critical for a patient receiving

intravenous Vancomycin?

A. Trough serum concentrations


B. Serum potassium levels


C. Liver function tests

,D. Prothrombin time


Answer: A


Rationale: Vancomycin requires careful monitoring of trough levels to ensure efficacy and

minimize toxicity. Maintaining appropriate trough levels helps prevent the development of

antibiotic resistance and reduces the risk of nephrotoxicity. Typically, trough levels are

drawn just before the administration of the next dose.


3. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension but develops a persistent, dry cough.

What is the physiological cause of this side effect?

A. Inhibition of renin release


B. Accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs


C. Direct irritation of the bronchial mucosa


D. Increased production of Angiotensin II


Answer: B


Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to its

accumulation in the respiratory tract. This accumulation triggers the cough reflex in

approximately 10 to 20 percent of patients. If the cough becomes intolerable, the

healthcare provider may switch the patient to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker.


4. Why is Metformin generally considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for Type 2

Diabetes?

A. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

, B. It has a high risk of causing hypoglycemia.


C. It decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity.


D. It promotes weight gain in most patients.


Answer: C


Rationale: Metformin works primarily by reducing the amount of glucose produced by the

liver and enhancing peripheral glucose uptake. Unlike sulfonylureas, it does not stimulate

insulin secretion and therefore carries a low risk of hypoglycemia. It is also associated with

weight neutrality or modest weight loss, making it ideal for many diabetic patients.


5. Which of the following is a major contraindication for the use of non-selective Beta-

blockers like Propranolol?

A. Asthma or reactive airway disease


B. Essential tremor


C. Tachycardia


D. Hypertension


Answer: A


Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers inhibit both Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptors, the latter

of which are found in the lungs. Blocking Beta-2 receptors can lead to bronchoconstriction,

which is dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Cardioselective beta-blockers are

generally preferred if a beta-blocker must be used in these populations.

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