ATI PN PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM WITH NGN – EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | 2026/27 LATEST
UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
Section One: Questions 1-50
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium
bromide via a metered-dose inhaler. The client asks the nurse how this medication works to help their
breathing. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?
A. It works by relaxing the smooth muscle of the airways through beta-2 receptor stimulation.
B. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine in the bronchial smooth muscle, leading to
bronchodilation.
C. It works by suppressing the inflammatory response in the lungs and reducing mucus production.
D. It works by liquefying and thinning out the thick secretions that block the airways.
Correct Answer: B. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine in the bronchial smooth muscle,
leading to bronchodilation.
Rationale: * Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent that acts as a competitive antagonist at muscarinic
receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle, blocking the bronchoconstrictive effect of acetylcholine. This results in
bronchodilation. Option A describes beta-2 agonists like albuterol. Option C describes corticosteroids. Option D
describes the function of mucolytics like acetylcysteine.**
,2. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin to a client. Which of the
following actions is essential to ensure client safety?
A. Aspirate for a blood return before injecting the medication.
B. Massage the injection site firmly for one minute after administration.
C. Administer the injection into the client's deltoid muscle.
D. Use a new, sterile needle to administer the medication.
Correct Answer: D. Use a new, sterile needle to administer the medication.
Rationale: * Standard safe injection practices require the use of a new, sterile needle for each injection to
prevent infection. Aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin injections as it can cause tissue
trauma and hematoma formation. Massaging the site can also increase the risk of hematoma. Heparin is
administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly.**
3. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of
digoxin toxicity, which include which of the following?
A. Tachycardia and hypertension.
B. Constipation and dry mouth.
C. Anorexia, nausea, and blurred vision.
D. Hypokalemia and hyperglycemia.
,Correct Answer: C. Anorexia, nausea, and blurred vision.
Rationale: * Early signs of digoxin toxicity often involve the gastrointestinal (GI) and neurological systems.
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances such as blurred vision, yellow-green halos, or photophobia
are classic early indicators. Option A describes symptoms more consistent with an overdose of
sympathomimetics. Option B is not typical of digoxin toxicity. Option D describes potential adverse effects of
other medications (e.g., potassium-wasting diuretics or corticosteroids).**
4. A client receiving an IV infusion of vancomycin reports feeling flushed and develops a red rash on the
upper body. The client's blood pressure is stable and there is no respiratory distress. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Stop the infusion immediately and prepare to administer diphenhydramine.
B. Assess the client's airway and notify the healthcare provider stat.
C. Slow the rate of infusion and monitor the client's symptoms.
D. Document the finding and continue to monitor the client's vital signs.
Correct Answer: C. Slow the rate of infusion and monitor the client's symptoms.
Rationale: * This client is experiencing "Red Man Syndrome," a common adverse reaction to vancomycin
characterized by flushing and rash due to histamine release, which is often related to the rate of infusion. The
priority is to slow the infusion rate to alleviate symptoms. The infusion would only be stopped if the reaction
, were life-threatening, which is not indicated here as the blood pressure is stable and there is no respiratory
distress. While notification may be required, slowing the infusion is the priority action.**
5. The practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has just been prescribed furosemide for
hypertension. Which of the following dietary instructions is most important to include?
A. "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods."
B. "You should limit your intake of high-fiber foods."
C. "You can now discontinue your sodium restriction."
D. "You will need to add a calcium supplement to your daily routine."
Correct Answer: A. "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods."
Rationale: * Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium
in the urine. Therefore, clients should be instructed to increase their dietary intake of potassium-rich foods like
bananas, oranges, and potatoes. Sodium restriction should be maintained to manage hypertension. Calcium
supplementation is not a direct, standard instruction with furosemide.**
6. A client is receiving an enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse is preparing to administer
phenytoin suspension. Which of the following actions is correct to ensure optimal absorption of the
medication?
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | 2026/27 LATEST
UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
Section One: Questions 1-50
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium
bromide via a metered-dose inhaler. The client asks the nurse how this medication works to help their
breathing. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?
A. It works by relaxing the smooth muscle of the airways through beta-2 receptor stimulation.
B. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine in the bronchial smooth muscle, leading to
bronchodilation.
C. It works by suppressing the inflammatory response in the lungs and reducing mucus production.
D. It works by liquefying and thinning out the thick secretions that block the airways.
Correct Answer: B. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine in the bronchial smooth muscle,
leading to bronchodilation.
Rationale: * Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent that acts as a competitive antagonist at muscarinic
receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle, blocking the bronchoconstrictive effect of acetylcholine. This results in
bronchodilation. Option A describes beta-2 agonists like albuterol. Option C describes corticosteroids. Option D
describes the function of mucolytics like acetylcysteine.**
,2. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin to a client. Which of the
following actions is essential to ensure client safety?
A. Aspirate for a blood return before injecting the medication.
B. Massage the injection site firmly for one minute after administration.
C. Administer the injection into the client's deltoid muscle.
D. Use a new, sterile needle to administer the medication.
Correct Answer: D. Use a new, sterile needle to administer the medication.
Rationale: * Standard safe injection practices require the use of a new, sterile needle for each injection to
prevent infection. Aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin injections as it can cause tissue
trauma and hematoma formation. Massaging the site can also increase the risk of hematoma. Heparin is
administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly.**
3. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of
digoxin toxicity, which include which of the following?
A. Tachycardia and hypertension.
B. Constipation and dry mouth.
C. Anorexia, nausea, and blurred vision.
D. Hypokalemia and hyperglycemia.
,Correct Answer: C. Anorexia, nausea, and blurred vision.
Rationale: * Early signs of digoxin toxicity often involve the gastrointestinal (GI) and neurological systems.
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances such as blurred vision, yellow-green halos, or photophobia
are classic early indicators. Option A describes symptoms more consistent with an overdose of
sympathomimetics. Option B is not typical of digoxin toxicity. Option D describes potential adverse effects of
other medications (e.g., potassium-wasting diuretics or corticosteroids).**
4. A client receiving an IV infusion of vancomycin reports feeling flushed and develops a red rash on the
upper body. The client's blood pressure is stable and there is no respiratory distress. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Stop the infusion immediately and prepare to administer diphenhydramine.
B. Assess the client's airway and notify the healthcare provider stat.
C. Slow the rate of infusion and monitor the client's symptoms.
D. Document the finding and continue to monitor the client's vital signs.
Correct Answer: C. Slow the rate of infusion and monitor the client's symptoms.
Rationale: * This client is experiencing "Red Man Syndrome," a common adverse reaction to vancomycin
characterized by flushing and rash due to histamine release, which is often related to the rate of infusion. The
priority is to slow the infusion rate to alleviate symptoms. The infusion would only be stopped if the reaction
, were life-threatening, which is not indicated here as the blood pressure is stable and there is no respiratory
distress. While notification may be required, slowing the infusion is the priority action.**
5. The practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has just been prescribed furosemide for
hypertension. Which of the following dietary instructions is most important to include?
A. "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods."
B. "You should limit your intake of high-fiber foods."
C. "You can now discontinue your sodium restriction."
D. "You will need to add a calcium supplement to your daily routine."
Correct Answer: A. "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods."
Rationale: * Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium
in the urine. Therefore, clients should be instructed to increase their dietary intake of potassium-rich foods like
bananas, oranges, and potatoes. Sodium restriction should be maintained to manage hypertension. Calcium
supplementation is not a direct, standard instruction with furosemide.**
6. A client is receiving an enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse is preparing to administer
phenytoin suspension. Which of the following actions is correct to ensure optimal absorption of the
medication?
