HEALTH ASSESSMENT PRACTICAL EXAMINATION
|Summer Series Practice Test |due June/July 2026
|Questions And Correct Answers
1. A 68-year-old male presents with a complaint of dizziness when
standing up from a seated position. Which of the following
assessment findings would be most indicative of orthostatic
hypotension?
A. A decrease in systolic blood pressure of 10 mmHg and an
increase in heart rate of 10 bpm upon standing
B. A decrease in systolic blood pressure of 25 mmHg and an
increase in heart rate of 15 bpm upon standing
C. A decrease in systolic blood pressure of 15 mmHg and a
decrease in heart rate of 5 bpm upon standing
D. An increase in systolic blood pressure of 10 mmHg and an
increase in heart rate of 20 bpm upon standing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in
systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmHg (or 10 mmHg for
diastolic) within 3 minutes of standing. A compensatory increase in
heart rate is expected. Option B meets the criteria with a
significant drop in systolic pressure and a compensatory
tachycardia, making it the correct choice. Option A does not meet
the threshold for a significant drop. Options C and D show atypical
or paradoxical responses.
,2. During a cardiovascular assessment, a nurse auscultates a high-
pitched, blowing, decrescendo murmur best heard at the left
sternal border during early diastole. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Aortic regurgitation is characterized by a high-
pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard at the
left sternal border. Mitral stenosis is a low-pitched, rumbling
diastolic murmur heard at the apex. Aortic stenosis is a systolic
ejection murmur. Mitral regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur at
the apex. Therefore, option C is the most accurate description.
3. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) has a barrel-shaped chest. In assessing this patient's
respiratory status, which of the following percussion notes would
you expect to find over the lung fields?
A. Tympany
B. Hyperresonance
C. Dullness
D. Flatness
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperresonance is a lower-pitched, louder, and
longer sound than normal resonance and is typically heard in
conditions with increased air trapping, such as COPD and
, emphysema, leading to a barrel-shaped chest. Tympany is a drum-
like sound heard over air-filled structures like the stomach.
Dullness is heard over solid organs or fluid. Flatness is heard over
bone or muscle. Therefore, hyperresonance is the expected finding.
4. When assessing the pupillary light reflex, the examiner shines a
light into the patient's right eye and observes constriction of the
right pupil (direct response) and constriction of the left pupil
(consensual response). Which cranial nerve is primarily
responsible for the afferent pathway of this reflex?
A. Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
B. Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
C. Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
D. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The afferent (sensory) pathway of the pupillary light
reflex is carried by Cranial Nerve II (Optic), which transmits the
light stimulus from the retina to the pretectal nucleus in the
midbrain. The efferent (motor) pathway is carried by Cranial Nerve
III (Oculomotor), which causes pupillary constriction. Therefore, CN
II is the correct answer. CN IV controls the superior oblique muscle,
and CN V is responsible for facial sensation and mastication.
5. A 55-year-old female presents with joint pain, stiffness, and
swelling in her hands. Upon examination, you note bilateral,
symmetric swelling of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and
proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, with sparing of the distal
, interphalangeal (DIP) joints. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by bilateral,
symmetric inflammation of the small joints of the hands, typically
affecting the MCP and PIP joints while sparing the DIP joints.
Osteoarthritis primarily affects the DIP and PIP joints. Gout often
presents as monoarticular, affecting the first metatarsophalangeal
joint. Psoriatic arthritis is asymmetric and often affects the DIP
joints. Therefore, the pattern described is classic for rheumatoid
arthritis.
6. In a patient with severe dehydration, which of the following skin
turgor assessment findings would be most consistent with this
condition?
A. Skin that springs back immediately when pinched
B. Skin that remains tented for several seconds after being
pinched
C. Skin that is warm and moist to the touch
D. Skin that is dry and scaly but returns to normal shape quickly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Poor skin turgor, indicated by skin that remains
tented or does not return to its normal position quickly after being
pinched, is a classic sign of moderate to severe dehydration.
|Summer Series Practice Test |due June/July 2026
|Questions And Correct Answers
1. A 68-year-old male presents with a complaint of dizziness when
standing up from a seated position. Which of the following
assessment findings would be most indicative of orthostatic
hypotension?
A. A decrease in systolic blood pressure of 10 mmHg and an
increase in heart rate of 10 bpm upon standing
B. A decrease in systolic blood pressure of 25 mmHg and an
increase in heart rate of 15 bpm upon standing
C. A decrease in systolic blood pressure of 15 mmHg and a
decrease in heart rate of 5 bpm upon standing
D. An increase in systolic blood pressure of 10 mmHg and an
increase in heart rate of 20 bpm upon standing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in
systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmHg (or 10 mmHg for
diastolic) within 3 minutes of standing. A compensatory increase in
heart rate is expected. Option B meets the criteria with a
significant drop in systolic pressure and a compensatory
tachycardia, making it the correct choice. Option A does not meet
the threshold for a significant drop. Options C and D show atypical
or paradoxical responses.
,2. During a cardiovascular assessment, a nurse auscultates a high-
pitched, blowing, decrescendo murmur best heard at the left
sternal border during early diastole. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Aortic regurgitation is characterized by a high-
pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard at the
left sternal border. Mitral stenosis is a low-pitched, rumbling
diastolic murmur heard at the apex. Aortic stenosis is a systolic
ejection murmur. Mitral regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur at
the apex. Therefore, option C is the most accurate description.
3. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) has a barrel-shaped chest. In assessing this patient's
respiratory status, which of the following percussion notes would
you expect to find over the lung fields?
A. Tympany
B. Hyperresonance
C. Dullness
D. Flatness
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperresonance is a lower-pitched, louder, and
longer sound than normal resonance and is typically heard in
conditions with increased air trapping, such as COPD and
, emphysema, leading to a barrel-shaped chest. Tympany is a drum-
like sound heard over air-filled structures like the stomach.
Dullness is heard over solid organs or fluid. Flatness is heard over
bone or muscle. Therefore, hyperresonance is the expected finding.
4. When assessing the pupillary light reflex, the examiner shines a
light into the patient's right eye and observes constriction of the
right pupil (direct response) and constriction of the left pupil
(consensual response). Which cranial nerve is primarily
responsible for the afferent pathway of this reflex?
A. Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
B. Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
C. Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
D. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The afferent (sensory) pathway of the pupillary light
reflex is carried by Cranial Nerve II (Optic), which transmits the
light stimulus from the retina to the pretectal nucleus in the
midbrain. The efferent (motor) pathway is carried by Cranial Nerve
III (Oculomotor), which causes pupillary constriction. Therefore, CN
II is the correct answer. CN IV controls the superior oblique muscle,
and CN V is responsible for facial sensation and mastication.
5. A 55-year-old female presents with joint pain, stiffness, and
swelling in her hands. Upon examination, you note bilateral,
symmetric swelling of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and
proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, with sparing of the distal
, interphalangeal (DIP) joints. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by bilateral,
symmetric inflammation of the small joints of the hands, typically
affecting the MCP and PIP joints while sparing the DIP joints.
Osteoarthritis primarily affects the DIP and PIP joints. Gout often
presents as monoarticular, affecting the first metatarsophalangeal
joint. Psoriatic arthritis is asymmetric and often affects the DIP
joints. Therefore, the pattern described is classic for rheumatoid
arthritis.
6. In a patient with severe dehydration, which of the following skin
turgor assessment findings would be most consistent with this
condition?
A. Skin that springs back immediately when pinched
B. Skin that remains tented for several seconds after being
pinched
C. Skin that is warm and moist to the touch
D. Skin that is dry and scaly but returns to normal shape quickly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Poor skin turgor, indicated by skin that remains
tented or does not return to its normal position quickly after being
pinched, is a classic sign of moderate to severe dehydration.
