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CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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CompTIA Network+ Certification
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CompTIA Network+ Certification

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CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf
1. Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for routing and logical
addressing? A. Network B. Data Link C. Transport D. Physical The Network
layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model is directly responsible for logical
addressing and routing packets between different networks. It utilizes IP
addresses to determine the most efficient path for data delivery across
multiple interconnected networks. In contrast, the Data Link layer handles
physical MAC addressing, and the Transport layer manages end-to-end
communication and reliability.
2. Which port is typically used by the HTTPS protocol to secure web
communication? A. Port 80 B. Port 443 C. Port 22 D. Port 3389 HTTPS uses
port 443 by default to provide secure, encrypted communication over a
computer network, widely used on the Internet. Port 80 is reserved for
unencrypted HTTP traffic, port 22 is utilized by Secure Shell (SSH) for
secure remote administration, and port 3389 is used by the Remote
Desktop Protocol (RDP).
3. What type of DNS record is used to map a hostname to an IPv6 address? A.
A record B. CNAME record C. AAAA record D. MX record The AAAA (Quad-
A) record is specifically designed to map a domain name to an IPv6
address, accommodating the 128-bit structure of IPv6. An 'A' record maps
to a 32-bit IPv4 address, a CNAME provides an alias for another domain
name, and an MX record directs email to a mail server.
4. Which network topology connects all devices to a central network switch or
hub? A. Mesh B. Ring C. Bus D. Star In a star topology, every node on the

, network connects directly to a central device, such as a switch or hub. This
design ensures that a failure in one cable only affects the device connected
to it, rather than bringing down the entire network, which is a common
vulnerability in bus or ring topologies.
5. Which routing protocol uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the best
path? A. EIGRP B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. BGP Enhanced Interior Gateway
Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is an advanced distance-vector routing protocol
developed by Cisco that uses a composite metric based primarily on
bandwidth and delay to determine the optimal path. OSPF uses cost based
on bandwidth, RIPv2 uses hop count, and BGP uses path attributes and
policies.
6. What is the maximum transmission distance of a 1000Base-T over Cat 5e
cable? A. 10 meters B. 100 meters C. 55 meters D. 1000 meters The
standard maximum transmission distance for 1000Base-T (Gigabit
Ethernet) over Category 5e unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable is 100
meters (approx 328 feet). Extending beyond this distance without a
repeater or switch can result in signal degradation, late collisions, and
significant packet loss.
7. Which of the following protocols is used to dynamically assign IP addresses
to network devices? A. DNS B. ARP C. DHCP D. ICMP The Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically assigns IP addresses, subnet
masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters to
client devices. This eliminates the need for manual static IP configuration,
reducing administrative overhead and preventing IP address conflicts on
the network.
8. What wireless standard operates exclusively in the 5 GHz frequency band
and supports speeds up to 54 Mbps? A. 802.11b B. 802.11g C. 802.11n D.
802.11a The IEEE 802.11a wireless standard operates exclusively in the 5
GHz frequency band, providing maximum data rates of up to 54 Mbps.
While it offers less interference than the crowded 2.4 GHz band used by

, 802.11b and 802.11g, its higher frequency results in a shorter effective
range and less ability to penetrate solid objects.
9. Which command-line tool is used to display the routing path and measure
transit delays of packets across an IP network? A. tracert B. ipconfig C. ping
D. netstat The 'tracert' (or traceroute on Unix/Linux) utility maps the
journey a packet takes from the source to a destination by recording the IP
addresses of the routers (hops) it passes through. It uses ICMP echo
requests with incrementally increasing Time-To-Live (TTL) values to
identify where routing failures or significant delays are occurring.
10.A network administrator wants to separate voice traffic from data traffic on
the same physical switch. What technology should be used? A. STP B. VLAN
C. NAT D. QoS A Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) allows a network
administrator to logically segment a single physical switch into multiple
distinct broadcast domains. By creating separate VLANs for voice and data
traffic, the administrator can improve security, reduce broadcast traffic
congestion, and easily apply Quality of Service (QoS) policies to prioritize
the voice packets.
11.Which cryptographic protocol is primarily used to secure VPN connections
over the internet at the network layer? A. SSL/TLS B. WPA3 C. IPsec D. SSH
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a suite of protocols used to
authenticate and encrypt IP packets to provide secure, site-to-site or
remote-access Virtual Private Network (VPN) connections. It operates at
Layer 3 (the Network layer) of the OSI model, making it transparent to
applications, unlike SSL/TLS which operates at higher layers.
12.What subnet mask is represented by the CIDR notation /24? A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.128 C. 255.255.255.252 D. 255.255.255.0 The CIDR
notation /24 indicates that the first 24 bits of the IP address are dedicated
to the network portion. In a 32-bit IPv4 address, this translates to binary
11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000, which converts to the decimal
subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, commonly used for Class C sized networks.

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