NUR 6011/NUR6011 Exam 3 V1 | Advance
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
William Paterson University
1. A patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. Which side effect is most
uniquely associated with this class of drugs due to bradykinin accumulation?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypokalemia
C. Dry, non-productive cough
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent dry cough in some patients. This side effect is a common reason for switching a
patient to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB). If the cough becomes intolerable,
clinical guidelines suggest discontinuing the drug to improve patient compliance.
2. A patient taking Digoxin reports seeing yellow-green halos around lights. What should the
nurse suspect?
A. Normal therapeutic effect
B. Acute glaucoma
C. Hypoglycemic reaction
,D. Digoxin toxicity
Answer: D
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as xanthopsia or yellow-green halos, are classic signs
of Digoxin toxicity. The nurse should immediately assess the patient’s serum digoxin level
and check for electrolyte imbalances like hypokalemia. Prompt recognition of these
symptoms is critical to prevent life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias associated with high
levels of digitalis.
3. Which laboratory value must be monitored closely for a patient receiving a continuous
Heparin infusion?
A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Platelet Count only
Answer: A
Rationale: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and
safety of unfractionated heparin therapy. The goal is typically to maintain the aPTT within
a therapeutic range of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal baseline value. Constant monitoring
ensures that the patient is sufficiently anticoagulated while minimizing the risk of
spontaneous hemorrhage.
, 4. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which type of Beta-
blocker is safest for this patient?
A. Non-selective Beta-blockers
B. Mixed Alpha/Beta blockers
C. Cardioselective Beta-blockers
D. No Beta-blockers should ever be used
Answer: C
Rationale: Cardioselective beta-blockers, such as Metoprolol, primarily target Beta-1
receptors in the heart rather than Beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Non-selective beta-
blockers can cause bronchoconstriction by blocking Beta-2 receptors, which is dangerous
for patients with asthma. Even with cardioselective agents, clinicians must monitor
respiratory status closely as selectivity can be lost at higher doses.
5. Which medication is considered the first-line oral treatment for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus,
provided there are no contraindications?
A. Glyburide
B. Metformin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Sitagliptin
Answer: B
Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
William Paterson University
1. A patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. Which side effect is most
uniquely associated with this class of drugs due to bradykinin accumulation?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypokalemia
C. Dry, non-productive cough
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent dry cough in some patients. This side effect is a common reason for switching a
patient to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB). If the cough becomes intolerable,
clinical guidelines suggest discontinuing the drug to improve patient compliance.
2. A patient taking Digoxin reports seeing yellow-green halos around lights. What should the
nurse suspect?
A. Normal therapeutic effect
B. Acute glaucoma
C. Hypoglycemic reaction
,D. Digoxin toxicity
Answer: D
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as xanthopsia or yellow-green halos, are classic signs
of Digoxin toxicity. The nurse should immediately assess the patient’s serum digoxin level
and check for electrolyte imbalances like hypokalemia. Prompt recognition of these
symptoms is critical to prevent life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias associated with high
levels of digitalis.
3. Which laboratory value must be monitored closely for a patient receiving a continuous
Heparin infusion?
A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Platelet Count only
Answer: A
Rationale: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and
safety of unfractionated heparin therapy. The goal is typically to maintain the aPTT within
a therapeutic range of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal baseline value. Constant monitoring
ensures that the patient is sufficiently anticoagulated while minimizing the risk of
spontaneous hemorrhage.
, 4. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which type of Beta-
blocker is safest for this patient?
A. Non-selective Beta-blockers
B. Mixed Alpha/Beta blockers
C. Cardioselective Beta-blockers
D. No Beta-blockers should ever be used
Answer: C
Rationale: Cardioselective beta-blockers, such as Metoprolol, primarily target Beta-1
receptors in the heart rather than Beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Non-selective beta-
blockers can cause bronchoconstriction by blocking Beta-2 receptors, which is dangerous
for patients with asthma. Even with cardioselective agents, clinicians must monitor
respiratory status closely as selectivity can be lost at higher doses.
5. Which medication is considered the first-line oral treatment for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus,
provided there are no contraindications?
A. Glyburide
B. Metformin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Sitagliptin
Answer: B
