667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. Which of the following is an essential legal element required to prove a medical
malpractice claim against a Nurse Practitioner?
A. Existence of a provider-patient relationship
B. Lack of patient consent
C. The patient’s inability to pay for services
D. A negative outcome regardless of care provided
Answer: A
Rationale: To prove malpractice, the plaintiff must establish that a duty was owed, which
begins with a provider-patient relationship. Breach of duty, causation, and actual damages
must also be proven. This legal framework ensures that NPs are held accountable only
when a professional obligation exists.
2. An 82-year-old patient presents with new-onset confusion and urinary urgency. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dementia
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
,D. Urinary Tract Infection
Answer: D
Rationale: Older adults frequently present with atypical symptoms of infection, such as
delirium or confusion. A urinary tract infection is a common cause of sudden cognitive
changes in the geriatric population. Clinicians should always rule out acute medical issues
before considering chronic cognitive decline.
3. Which heart murmur is typically characterized by a harsh, mid-systolic crescendo-
decrescendo sound heard best at the right second intercostal space?
A. Mitral Regurgitation
B. Aortic Regurgitation
C. Mitral Stenosis
D. Aortic Stenosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Aortic stenosis produces a systolic murmur that often radiates to the carotids. It
is best auscultated at the right upper sternal border. This condition is often related to
calcification of the valve in older adults.
4. When initiating Metformin therapy for a patient with Type 2 Diabetes, which laboratory
value must be closely monitored?
A. Serum Potassium
, B. Fractional Excretion of Sodium
C. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
D. Estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR)
Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal impairment due to
the risk of lactic acidosis. The eGFR should be checked at least annually to ensure it
remains above 30 mL/min. If the eGFR falls between 30 and 45 mL/min, the dose should be
reduced or carefully evaluated.
5. A 25-year-old female presents with a ‘strawberry cervix’ and malodorous vaginal discharge.
What is the most likely pathogen?
A. Candida albicans
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: D
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is often associated with punctate hemorrhages on the cervix,
known as a strawberry cervix. It is caused by a protozoan parasite and typically presents
with a frothy discharge. Treatment usually involves a single dose of Metronidazole for the
patient and their partner.