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Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination of the United States (COMLEX-USA) Level 3 Practice Exam: 100 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales

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This comprehensive 100-question practice examination is designed for physicians preparing for the Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination of the United States (COMLEX-USA) Level 3. Developed to reflect the format, difficulty, and clinical decision-making expected on the actual examination, this resource helps candidates strengthen diagnostic reasoning, patient management, and evidence-based medical practice. The practice exam covers high-yield topics across internal medicine, family medicine, emergency medicine, surgery, pediatrics, obstetrics and gynecology, psychiatry, preventive medicine, ethics, professionalism, and osteopathic principles and practice (OPP/OMM). Questions emphasize the evaluation and management of complex patients in ambulatory, inpatient, and emergency settings while integrating osteopathic concepts into clinical care. Each question includes a correct answer and detailed rationale to reinforce understanding, improve retention, and enhance critical thinking. Ideal for osteopathic physicians preparing for licensure, this practice examination serves as an effective board review resource for self-assessment, comprehensive revision, and final COMLEX-USA Level 3 exam preparation.

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Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical
Licensing Examination of the United
States (COMLEX-USA) Level 3 Practice
Exam: 100 Questions with Answers and
Detailed Rationales
1. A 68-year-old man with septic shock remains hypotensive after receiving 30
mL/kg of crystalloid fluids. Which vasopressor should be initiated first?

A. Dopamine

B. Epinephrine

C. Norepinephrine

D. Vasopressin

Answer: C. Norepinephrine

Rationale: Norepinephrine is the recommended first-line vasopressor in septic
shock because it effectively increases mean arterial pressure with fewer
arrhythmias than dopamine. Vasopressin may be added later if needed.



2. A 55-year-old woman with diabetes develops crushing substernal chest
pain. ECG demonstrates ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The
most appropriate immediate treatment is:

A. Exercise stress testing

B. Emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

,C. Outpatient cardiology referral

D. Holter monitoring

Answer: B. Emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

Rationale: ST-elevation myocardial infarction requires immediate reperfusion
therapy. PCI within 90 minutes is preferred whenever available.



3. A hospitalized patient suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and
tachycardia after hip replacement surgery. What is the best initial
diagnostic test if the patient is hemodynamically stable?

A. Chest X-ray

B. Echocardiogram

C. CT pulmonary angiography

D. Lower-extremity ultrasound

Answer: C. CT pulmonary angiography

Rationale: CT pulmonary angiography is the diagnostic test of choice for stable
patients with suspected pulmonary embolism.



4. A patient with chronic kidney disease has potassium of 7.2 mEq/L and
peaked T waves on ECG. The first medication should be:

A. Sodium polystyrene

B. Furosemide

C. Intravenous calcium gluconate

D. Sodium bicarbonate

,Answer: C. Intravenous calcium gluconate

Rationale: Calcium gluconate immediately stabilizes cardiac membranes
without lowering serum potassium and is the first priority when ECG changes
are present.



5. A patient presents with fever, hypotension, warm extremities, and elevated
lactate. Which intervention should occur within the first hour?

A. MRI abdomen

B. Colonoscopy

C. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics

D. Corticosteroids alone

Answer: C. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics

Rationale: Prompt administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics significantly
reduces mortality in septic shock and should occur as early as possible after
cultures are obtained.



6. Which acid-base disorder is expected in salicylate toxicity?

A. Respiratory acidosis only

B. Metabolic alkalosis only

C. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic acidosis only

Answer: C. Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

Rationale: Salicylates stimulate the respiratory center, producing respiratory
alkalosis, followed by accumulation of organic acids causing metabolic acidosis.

, 7. A patient with atrial fibrillation becomes hypotensive with altered mental
status. Appropriate management is:

A. Oral metoprolol

B. Intravenous digoxin

C. Immediate synchronized cardioversion

D. Observation

Answer: C. Immediate synchronized cardioversion

Rationale: Hemodynamically unstable atrial fibrillation requires immediate
synchronized cardioversion regardless of duration.



8. Which finding most strongly suggests bacterial meningitis?

A. CSF glucose normal

B. CSF lymphocyte predominance

C. CSF neutrophilic pleocytosis with low glucose

D. Elevated CSF glucose

Answer: C. CSF neutrophilic pleocytosis with low glucose

Rationale: Typical bacterial meningitis causes neutrophilic predominance,
elevated protein, and decreased CSF glucose.



9. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has potassium of 3.1 mEq/L. What
should occur before insulin administration?

A. Sodium bicarbonate

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