BANK 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE 2026 ALREADY GRADED A+
This comprehensive study guide provides 300 unique, multiple-choice
questions designed to thoroughly prepare candidates for the Trauma Nursing
Core Course (TNCC) 9th Edition exam. Covering all aspects of trauma
nursing including primary and secondary surveys, specific injury patterns,
shock states, resuscitation principles, and special populations, each question
includes the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining the underlying
clinical principle. The questions address airway management, hemorrhage
control, neurologic assessment, chest and abdominal trauma, spinal cord
injuries, burn care, and TNCC course logistics. This resource is ideal for
emergency and trauma nurses seeking certification or recertification.
1. A trauma patient arrives after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. What is the
first priority in the primary survey?
A) Circulation with hemorrhage control
B) Airway with cervical spine protection
C) Disability (neurologic assessment)
D) Exposure and environmental control
Answer: B
Rationale: The ABCDE approach begins with Airway management while
protecting the cervical spine because airway compromise is the most immediate
life-threatening condition in trauma. Airway obstruction can lead to death within
minutes .
2. What is the primary goal of the initial trauma assessment (Primary Survey)?
A) To obtain a complete medical history
B) To identify and treat life-threatening conditions in order of priority (ABC)
C) To perform a head-to-toe physical examination
D) To order diagnostic imaging
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary survey (ABCDE) identifies and treats life-threatening
injuries immediately. It follows a priority sequence: Airway with cervical spine
,protection, Breathing, Circulation, Disability (Neurologic),
Exposure/Environmental control .
3. What does the "M" in the MIST mnemonic for prehospital report stand for?
A) Mechanism of injury
B) Medications
C) Medical history
D) Multiple injuries
Answer: A
Rationale: The MIST mnemonic is used for concise prehospital trauma handoff:
Mechanism of injury, Injuries sustained, Signs/Symptoms, and Treatment given .
4. What does the "A" in the AMPLE mnemonic represent?
A) Allergies
B) Age
C) Airway
D) Assessment
Answer: A
Rationale: AMPLE is a mnemonic for obtaining a focused history: Allergies,
Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events/environment related to injury
.
5. What does the "C" in the ABCDE primary survey represent?
A) Cervical spine
B) Circulation with hemorrhage control
C) Capillary refill
D) Consciousness
Answer: B
Rationale: "C" stands for Circulation — assessment of pulse, skin color,
temperature, and capillary refill, with immediate control of external hemorrhage .
6. A trauma patient is restless and repeatedly asking "where am I?" Vital signs
upon arrival were BP 100/60 mm Hg, HR 96/min, RR 24/min. Skin is cool and
dry. Current vitals are BP 104/84 mm Hg, HR 108, RR 28. The patient is
demonstrating signs and symptoms of which stage of shock?
A) Compensated
B) Progressive
C) Irreversible
D) Decompensated
Answer: A
,Rationale: The patient demonstrates signs of compensated shock: tachycardia,
tachypnea, and narrowing pulse pressure (increasing diastolic pressure) with cool,
dry skin. The body is attempting to maintain perfusion to vital organs .
7. During the head-to-toe assessment, where would you find Grey-Turner's sign?
A) Umbilicus
B) Flank
C) Abdomen
D) Chest
Answer: B
Rationale: Grey-Turner's sign (ecchymosis in the flank area) indicates
retroperitoneal bleeding, commonly associated with hemorrhagic pancreatitis or
trauma .
8. During the head-to-toe assessment, where would you find Cullen's sign?
A) Umbilicus
B) Flank
C) Abdomen
D) Chest
Answer: A
Rationale: Cullen's sign (periumbilical ecchymosis) indicates intra-abdominal
bleeding, particularly associated with hemorrhagic pancreatitis or ruptured ectopic
pregnancy .
9. An adult patient who sustained a severe head trauma has been intubated and is
being manually ventilated via a bag-mask device at a rate of 18 breaths/minute.
The patient has received one intravenous fluid bolus of 500 mL of warmed isotonic
crystalloid solution. The PaCO2 is 30 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry is 92%. BP
is 142/70 mm Hg. What is the most important intervention to manage cerebral
blood flow?
A) Decrease the rate of manual ventilation
B) Initiate another fluid bolus
C) Recheck endotracheal tube placement
D) Increase the amount of oxygen delivered
Answer: A
Rationale: A PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg indicates hyperventilation, which causes
cerebral vasoconstriction and reduces cerebral blood flow. Decreasing the
ventilation rate will allow PaCO2 to normalize (35–45 mm Hg), optimizing
cerebral perfusion .
, 10. What is the correct sequence of the secondary survey?
A) Head-to-toe assessment, history, reassess vitals
B) History, head-to-toe assessment, pain assessment
C) Reassess ABCs, head-to-toe, history
D) VIPP (Vital signs, Injuries/interventions, Primary survey, Pain)
Answer: D
Rationale: The secondary survey includes VIPP: Vital signs, Injuries/interventions,
Primary survey reassessment, and Pain assessment. The "J" stands for "Just keep
evaluating" .
11. What is the "J" in the secondary survey mnemonic?
A) Just keep evaluating
B) Joint assessment
C) Jaw evaluation
D) Jugular vein assessment
Answer: A
Rationale: The secondary survey ends with "J" for "Just keep evaluating,"
emphasizing that trauma assessment is continuous and ongoing .
12. An older patient with a history of anticoagulant use presents after a fall at home
the previous day. She denies loss of consciousness. She has a hematoma to her
forehead and complains of headache, dizziness, and nausea. What is the most
likely cause of her symptoms?
A) Epidural hematoma
B) Diffuse axonal injury
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer: C
Rationale: Subdural hematoma is common in older adults on anticoagulants, even
after seemingly minor falls. Symptoms may be delayed and include headache,
nausea, and altered mental status .
13. A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has sustained a fracture to the
second rib of the anterior left chest. Which concurrent injury is most commonly
associated with this fracture?
A) Blunt cardiac injury
B) Brachial plexus injury
C) Pneumothorax
D) Hemothorax
Answer: B