NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I - MDC 1 Exam 2: (Latest
2026/2027 Update) Questions & Answers with Detailed
Rationales | Grade A
SUBTITLE:
60 Practice Exam Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
PREPARED FOR:
NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I - MDC 1 Exam 2
DOCUMENT INCLUDES:
● Practice exam questions
● Correct answers
● Detailed rationales
● Key topics covered
TOPICS COVERED:
● Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances
● Acid-Base Balance
● IV Therapy & Administration
● Nutrition & Metabolic Needs
● Oxygenation & Respiratory Care
● Cardiovascular Function & Perfusion
● Pain Management
● Infection Control & Immunity
● Wound Care & Healing
● Mobility/Immobility
● Sensory Perception
● Elimination
PURPOSE:
,This comprehensive practice exam is designed to help NUR 2356 students master key
Multidimensional Care I concepts, develop clinical reasoning, and confidently prepare
for Exam 2.
SECTION 1: Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient who has been vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which
assessment finding indicates the patient is experiencing moderate dehydration?
A. Dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor
B. Confusion, tachycardia, and hypotension
C. Thirst and slightly dry oral mucosa
D. Anuria and severe hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Moderate dehydration is characterized by dry mucous membranes,
decreased skin turgor, decreased urine output, and tachycardia. Option B represents
severe dehydration with signs of hypovolemic shock. Option C describes mild
dehydration. Option D indicates severe dehydration with compromised renal perfusion.
The nurse should anticipate fluid replacement therapy and ongoing monitoring of intake
and output.
Question 2
A patient with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide. The nurse should
monitor for which electrolyte imbalance most commonly associated with this therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
,D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle to
inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased excretion of potassium,
causing hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels and assess for
signs such as muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, and fatigue. Hyperkalemia (A) is more
commonly associated with potassium-sparing diuretics or renal failure. Hypernatremia
(C) and hypocalcemia (D) are not the primary electrolyte disturbances associated with
loop diuretic therapy.
Question 3
The nurse is caring for a patient with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which
nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Administer intravenous 3% sodium chloride immediately
B. Restrict free water intake and monitor neurologic status
C. Encourage oral sodium intake and increase fluid consumption
D. Initiate seizure precautions and prepare for dialysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum sodium of 128 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia. The priority
intervention is to restrict free water intake to prevent further dilution of serum sodium
and to monitor neurologic status, as hyponatremia can cause cerebral edema,
confusion, and seizures. Option A is inappropriate for moderate hyponatremia and can
cause osmotic demyelination syndrome if corrected too rapidly. Option C would worsen
hyponatremia by further diluting sodium. Option D is excessive unless the patient is
symptomatic with severe hyponatremia and renal failure.
, Question 4
A patient with hypokalemia is receiving oral potassium supplements. The nurse
provides which instruction to promote safe absorption?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water
B. Take the medication with food and a full glass of water
C. Crush the extended-release tablet and mix with applesauce
D. Take the medication immediately before bedtime
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral potassium supplements should be taken with food and a full glass of
water to minimize gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration. Taking on an empty stomach
(A) increases the risk of GI distress. Crushing extended-release tablets (C) is
contraindicated as it can cause localized high concentrations leading to tissue damage
and alters the drug's release mechanism. Taking immediately before bedtime (D) is not
specifically contraindicated but does not address the need to minimize GI irritation.
Question 5
A patient has a serum calcium level of 10.8 mg/dL. Which clinical manifestation should
the nurse expect to find?
A. Positive Chvostek's sign
B. Positive Trousseau's sign
C. Muscle weakness and constipation
D. Paresthesia and tetany
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum calcium of 10.8 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia (normal range
8.5-10.5 mg/dL). Clinical manifestations include muscle weakness, constipation,
fatigue, confusion, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Positive Chvostek's sign (A) and
2026/2027 Update) Questions & Answers with Detailed
Rationales | Grade A
SUBTITLE:
60 Practice Exam Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
PREPARED FOR:
NUR 2356 Multidimensional Care I - MDC 1 Exam 2
DOCUMENT INCLUDES:
● Practice exam questions
● Correct answers
● Detailed rationales
● Key topics covered
TOPICS COVERED:
● Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances
● Acid-Base Balance
● IV Therapy & Administration
● Nutrition & Metabolic Needs
● Oxygenation & Respiratory Care
● Cardiovascular Function & Perfusion
● Pain Management
● Infection Control & Immunity
● Wound Care & Healing
● Mobility/Immobility
● Sensory Perception
● Elimination
PURPOSE:
,This comprehensive practice exam is designed to help NUR 2356 students master key
Multidimensional Care I concepts, develop clinical reasoning, and confidently prepare
for Exam 2.
SECTION 1: Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalances
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient who has been vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which
assessment finding indicates the patient is experiencing moderate dehydration?
A. Dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor
B. Confusion, tachycardia, and hypotension
C. Thirst and slightly dry oral mucosa
D. Anuria and severe hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Moderate dehydration is characterized by dry mucous membranes,
decreased skin turgor, decreased urine output, and tachycardia. Option B represents
severe dehydration with signs of hypovolemic shock. Option C describes mild
dehydration. Option D indicates severe dehydration with compromised renal perfusion.
The nurse should anticipate fluid replacement therapy and ongoing monitoring of intake
and output.
Question 2
A patient with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide. The nurse should
monitor for which electrolyte imbalance most commonly associated with this therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
,D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle to
inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased excretion of potassium,
causing hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels and assess for
signs such as muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, and fatigue. Hyperkalemia (A) is more
commonly associated with potassium-sparing diuretics or renal failure. Hypernatremia
(C) and hypocalcemia (D) are not the primary electrolyte disturbances associated with
loop diuretic therapy.
Question 3
The nurse is caring for a patient with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which
nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Administer intravenous 3% sodium chloride immediately
B. Restrict free water intake and monitor neurologic status
C. Encourage oral sodium intake and increase fluid consumption
D. Initiate seizure precautions and prepare for dialysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum sodium of 128 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia. The priority
intervention is to restrict free water intake to prevent further dilution of serum sodium
and to monitor neurologic status, as hyponatremia can cause cerebral edema,
confusion, and seizures. Option A is inappropriate for moderate hyponatremia and can
cause osmotic demyelination syndrome if corrected too rapidly. Option C would worsen
hyponatremia by further diluting sodium. Option D is excessive unless the patient is
symptomatic with severe hyponatremia and renal failure.
, Question 4
A patient with hypokalemia is receiving oral potassium supplements. The nurse
provides which instruction to promote safe absorption?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water
B. Take the medication with food and a full glass of water
C. Crush the extended-release tablet and mix with applesauce
D. Take the medication immediately before bedtime
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral potassium supplements should be taken with food and a full glass of
water to minimize gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration. Taking on an empty stomach
(A) increases the risk of GI distress. Crushing extended-release tablets (C) is
contraindicated as it can cause localized high concentrations leading to tissue damage
and alters the drug's release mechanism. Taking immediately before bedtime (D) is not
specifically contraindicated but does not address the need to minimize GI irritation.
Question 5
A patient has a serum calcium level of 10.8 mg/dL. Which clinical manifestation should
the nurse expect to find?
A. Positive Chvostek's sign
B. Positive Trousseau's sign
C. Muscle weakness and constipation
D. Paresthesia and tetany
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum calcium of 10.8 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia (normal range
8.5-10.5 mg/dL). Clinical manifestations include muscle weakness, constipation,
fatigue, confusion, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Positive Chvostek's sign (A) and
