WGU D440 HESI NUTRITION OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT V2 COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUESTIONS & 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES

WGU D440 HESI NUTRITION OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT V2 COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUESTIONS & 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES 1. A nurse is caring for a stroke patient with dysphagia. What nursing intervention is most critical to prevent aspiration during feeding? A. Feed the patient rapidly to minimize fatigue. B. Encourage the patient to lie down immediately after eating to rest. C. Offer the patient thin liquids and encourage use of a straw. D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position during and after feeding. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position (upright at 90 degrees) during and for 30-60 minutes after feeding uses gravity to help prevent food or liquid from entering the airway, which is the most critical intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with dysphagia. 2. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client with a functional gastrointestinal tract but a swallowing problem? A. Regular solid diet B. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) C. Oral intake with thickened liquids D. Enteral nutrition Correct Answer: D Explanation: Enteral nutrition delivers nutrients directly into the GI tract via a tube, bypassing the swallowing mechanism while still utilizing the functional gut. 3. The nurse recognizes which of the following diets would be insufficient in providing adequate nutritional support on a long-term basis? A. Sodium restricted diet. B. Mechanical soft diet. C. Pureed diet. D. Full liquid diet. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Full liquid diets are low in fiber, iron, and may be deficient in other nutrients. They are intended for short-term use and are insufficient for long-term nutritional support. 4. What is the primary function of carbohydrates in the body? A. To build and repair tissues B. To protect internal organs C. To enhance vitamin absorption D. To provide energy Correct Answer: D Explanation: Carbohydrates are the body's main source of energy. They are broken down into glucose, which fuels cellular activity. 5. Which of the following should NOT be served with a clear liquid diet? A. Tea B. Broth C. Gelatin (Jello) D. Ice cream Correct Answer: D Explanation: Ice cream is a dairy product and is not transparent or liquid at body temperature, which violates the principles of a clear liquid diet. 6. If a nurse encounters a client who has been prescribed a high-potassium diet while on an ACE inhibitor, what should the nurse do? A. Reassure the client that the high-potassium diet is safe with ACE inhibitors. B. Suggest the client increase their sodium intake instead. C. Encourage the client to continue the high-potassium diet as prescribed. D. Advise the client to discuss dietary changes with their healthcare provider. Correct Answer: D Explanation: ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. The nurse should advise the client to consult their provider before following a high-potassium diet. 7. Describe the rationale behind restricting protein intake in patients with renal disease. A. Restricting protein intake promotes muscle growth and recovery. B. Restricting protein intake increases the absorption of essential vitamins. C. Restricting protein intake enhances overall fluid balance in the body. D. Restricting protein intake helps to minimize the accumulation of waste products in the blood, which the kidneys struggle to filter. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Protein metabolism produces nitrogenous wastes (like urea) that diseased kidneys cannot effectively excrete. Restricting protein reduces this buildup. 8. Why does the American Heart Association recommend a sodium intake limit of 1,500 mg for most adults? A. To enhance the absorption of vitamins. B. To promote weight gain and muscle growth. C. To increase energy levels in the body. D. To reduce the risk of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. Correct Answer: D Explanation: High sodium intake is a major contributor to hypertension (high blood pressure), which is a primary risk factor for heart disease and stroke. 9. If a client with cholecystitis consumes fried chicken, what potential outcome might they experience? A. Improved digestion B. Weight loss C. Enhanced nutrient absorption D. Increased abdominal pain Correct Answer: D Explanation: Fried chicken is high in fat. The gallbladder, which is inflamed in cholecystitis, would contract to release bile to digest the fat, causing severe pain. 10. In order to enhance absorption, the nurse teaches the patient to take the prescribed iron supplement with which of the following? A. Milk B. Whole grain crackers C. Antacids D. Orange juice Correct Answer: D Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid), found in orange juice, significantly enhances the absorption of non-heme iron (the type found in supplements and plant foods). 11. Why is it important for a client with cholecystitis to avoid fried foods? A. Fried foods are low in essential nutrients. B. Fried foods increase the risk of dehydration. C. Fried foods are difficult to chew and swallow. D. Fried foods are high in fat, which triggers gallbladder contraction and pain. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Fried foods are high in fat, which stimulates the gallbladder to release bile. In cholecystitis, the gallbladder is inflamed, and this contraction causes severe abdominal pain. 12. A client is prescribed a low-fiber diet. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. White rice B. Peeled apples C. Cream of wheat D. Whole grain bread Correct Answer: D Explanation: Whole grain bread is high in fiber. A low-fiber diet restricts whole grains, nuts, seeds, and raw fruits and vegetables to reduce fecal bulk and GI stimulation. 13. Which laboratory value would the nurse monitor most closely in a patient receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)? A. Serum sodium B. Serum potassium C. Serum calcium D. Serum glucose Correct Answer: D Explanation: TPN solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose (glucose). The nurse must monitor serum glucose closely because hyperglycemia is a common complication. 14. A client with heart failure is placed on a 2-gram sodium diet. Which food choice indicates the client understands the dietary restriction? A. Canned vegetable soup B. Fresh grilled chicken breast C. Salted pretzels D. Processed cheese slices Correct Answer: B Explanation: Fresh grilled chicken breast is naturally low in sodium. Canned soups, salted pretzels, and processed cheeses are high in sodium and should be avoided. 15. What is the primary purpose of a clear liquid diet? A. To provide optimal long-term nutrition B. To stimulate appetite C. To promote weight gain D. To provide fluids and minimal electrolytes while the GI tract is resting Correct Answer: D Explanation: A clear liquid diet is used short-term to provide fluids and minimal electrolytes, to rest the GI tract, or as a preparatory diet for procedures or surgery. 16. A patient is prescribed a high-fiber diet. Which breakfast selection is most appropriate? A. Refined cornflakes with skim milk B. White toast with butter