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Rasmussen University NUR 2571 Exam 1 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Professional Nursing II Q&A | Nursing

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Elevate your clinical reasoning and master complex multi-system disorders with this premier high-yield study resource for Rasmussen University NUR 2571 Professional Nursing II (PN2) Exam 1. Fully optimized for the 2026/2027 academic syllabus, this comprehensive PDF features verified exam-style questions, accurate answers, and detailed clinical rationales. Inside, you will unlock deep coverage of advanced medical-surgical nursing concepts, focusing heavily on the pathophysiology, assessment, and management of acute and chronic alterations in the cardiovascular, respiratory, and hematological systems. The material provides target-rich review on critical topics such as dysrhythmia interpretation, myocardial infarction interventions, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), acid-base imbalances, and advanced priority-setting frameworks (ABCs and Maslow's) for unstable patients. Engineered to maximize retention and reinforce active recall, this targeted test pack simplifies complex client care parameters, saves valuable study time, and ensures you secure an A on Exam 1.

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Institution
NUR 2571
Module
NUR 2571

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Rasmussen University NUR 2571 Exam 1 (pdf) | 2026/2027 |
Professional Nursing II Q&A | Nursing

1. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of diverticulitis?

A) Inflammation of the gastric mucosa caused by H. pylori infection

B) Inflammation of sac-like outpouches of mucosa through the muscular
layer of the bowel

C) Obstruction of the large intestine by a tumor

D) Twisting of the bowel upon itself causing ischemia



Correct Answer: Inflammation of sac-like outpouches of mucosa through the
muscular layer of the bowel



Rationale: Diverticulitis is the inflammation of diverticula, which are sac-like
outpouches of mucosa that herniate through the muscular layer of the bowel,
most commonly in the sigmoid colon. Gastric inflammation from H. pylori
describes gastritis, obstruction describes colorectal cancer, and twisting
describes volvulus.



2. A client with diverticulitis reports left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The
nurse recognizes this as a classic manifestation because:

A) The diverticula are most commonly located in the sigmoid colon

B) The pain is referred from the gallbladder

C) The inflammation is typically in the right lower quadrant

D) The pain originates from the stomach



Correct Answer: The diverticula are most commonly located in the sigmoid
colon



Rationale: Diverticula most commonly form in the sigmoid colon, which is
located in the left lower quadrant. This explains why left lower quadrant pain

,is a hallmark manifestation of diverticulitis. Right lower quadrant pain is
characteristic of appendicitis.



3. A nurse is teaching a client with acute diverticulitis about dietary
restrictions. Which instruction should the nurse include?

A) "Increase your fiber intake immediately to resolve the inflammation."

B) "Follow a clear liquid diet until inflammation resolves."

C) "Eat a high-fat diet to reduce bowel irritation."

D) "Consume large amounts of dairy products."



Correct Answer: "Follow a clear liquid diet until inflammation resolves."



Rationale: During acute diverticulitis, a low-fiber or clear liquid diet is
recommended to allow the bowel to rest. High-fiber intake should be
resumed only after inflammation resolves. High-fat and dairy products are
not recommended.



4. A client with diverticulitis should be advised to avoid which of the following
foods to prevent recurrence?

A) Applesauce and bananas

B) White bread and pasta

C) Nuts, corn, and popcorn

D) Broth and clear juices



Correct Answer: Nuts, corn, and popcorn



Rationale: Clients with diverticulitis should avoid seeds or indigestible
materials such as nuts, corn, popcorn, cucumbers, tomatoes, figs, and
strawberries, as these can become trapped in diverticula and cause

,inflammation. Applesauce, bananas, white bread, pasta, broth, and clear
juices are generally safe.



5. According to screening guidelines, at what age should colorectal cancer
screening begin?

A) Age 30

B) Age 40

C) Age 50

D) Age 60



Correct Answer: Age 40



Rationale: Colorectal cancer screening should begin at age 40. Screening
methods include fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) annually, colonoscopy
every 10 years, double-contrast barium enema every 5 years, and
sigmoidoscopy every 5 years.



6. Which of the following is a risk factor for colorectal cancer?

A) Lactose intolerance

B) Ulcerative colitis

C) Peptic ulcer disease

D) Gallbladder disease



Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis



Rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a known risk factor for colorectal cancer, along
with Crohn's disease, familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), genetic
predisposition, age 50+, smoking, obesity, and a high-fat, low-fiber diet.
Lactose intolerance, peptic ulcer disease, and gallbladder disease are not
established risk factors.

, 7. A client with colorectal cancer is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse
should explain that this screening test is recommended:

A) Annually

B) Every 5 years

C) Every 10 years

D) Only once in a lifetime



Correct Answer: Every 10 years



Rationale: A colonoscopy is recommended every 10 years for colorectal
cancer screening. FOBT is recommended annually, and sigmoidoscopy or
barium enema is recommended every 5 years.



8. A client with renal colic is admitted with severe flank pain. What is the
priority nursing intervention?

A) Administering pain medication

B) Encouraging oral fluid intake

C) Placing the client in a supine position

D) Applying heat to the abdomen



Correct Answer: Administering pain medication



Rationale: Pain management is the priority for a client with renal colic caused
by kidney stones. Opioid analgesics and NSAIDs such as ketorolac are
commonly used. While fluid intake is important, pain relief takes precedence.



9. A client with renal colic is prescribed ketorolac. The nurse understands
that this medication is classified as a(n):

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