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NU 150 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS COMPLETE WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES

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NU 150 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS COMPLETE WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES 1. A patient is prescribed a medication that must be placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve. The nurse correctly identifies this route as: A) Buccal administration B) Sublingual administration C) Oral administration D) Topical administration Answer: B) Sublingual administration Rationale: Sublingual drugs are placed under the tongue and must not be swallowed or chewed. They are absorbed through the mucous membranes directly into the bloodstream. Buccal drugs (A) are absorbed through the mucous membranes of the cheek. Oral administration (C) involves swallowing the medication. Topical administration (D) involves application to the skin. ________________________________________ 2. The nurse is preparing to administer lispro insulin to a patient with diabetes. When should this medication be administered? A) 30-45 minutes before a meal B) At bedtime regardless of meals C) 15 minutes before or immediately after a meal D) 1 hour before a meal Answer: C) 15 minutes before or immediately after a meal Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog commonly used for mealtime insulin coverage. It should be given subcutaneously 15 minutes before or immediately after a meal. It has a rapid onset of action (about 15 minutes) and peaks in 30-90 minutes. ________________________________________ 3. A patient's laboratory results show an A1C level of 6.8%. The nurse interprets this finding as: A) Normal B) Prediabetic C) Diabetic D) Inconclusive Answer: C) Diabetic Rationale: A1C levels greater than 6.5% indicate diabetes. Normal A1C is 5.7%, prediabetic is 5.7%-6.4%, and diabetic is 6.5%. An A1C of 6.8% falls into the diabetic range, indicating poor glycemic control over the past 2-3 months. ________________________________________ 4. The nurse administers a medication and the patient states, "This pill looks different from what I usually take." What is the nurse's priority action? A) Tell the patient it's the same medication from a different manufacturer B) Administer the medication as ordered C) Stop administration and verify the medication D) Document the patient's comment after giving the medication Answer: C) Stop administration and verify the medication Rationale: Patient comments such as "this drug looks different" should be taken seriously and require the nurse to verify the medication before administration. This is one of the key considerations before medication administration, along with allergy history, previous adverse reactions, changes in patient condition, and changes in vital signs. ________________________________________ 5. The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 was established to: A) Regulate drugs that have potential for harm B) Ensure all medications are affordable C) Require generic substitution for all prescriptions D) Limit the number of medications a patient can receive Answer: A) Regulate drugs that have potential for harm Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 regulates drugs that have potential for abuse and harm. It established schedules (I-V) for controlled substances based on their potential for abuse and accepted medical use. This act helps prevent drug abuse and diversion. ________________________________________ 6. A patient is ordered to receive a medication for hypertension on a regular, ongoing basis. The nurse recognizes this type of order as: A) PRN order B) Standing order C) Single order D) Stat order Answer: B) Standing order Rationale: A standing order is a written order that specifies a medication is to be given on a regular basis. PRN orders (B) are administered as needed. Single orders (C) are given one time only. Stat orders (D) are one-time orders given as soon as possible. ________________________________________ 7. The nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has significant edema. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering? A) Hydrochlorothiazide B) Furosemide C) Lispro D) Metformin Answer: B) Furosemide Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat edema associated with heart failure or renal impairment. It works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle, producing significant diuresis. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic used for hypertension and mild edema but is less potent than loop diuretics. ________________________________________ 8. A medication order reads "give as needed for pain." The nurse identifies this as which type of order? A) Standing order B) PRN order C) Single order D) Stat order Answer: B) PRN order Rationale: A PRN (pro re nata) order means "as needed." This type of order allows the nurse to administer the medication when the patient requires it based on assessment findings. Standing orders (A) are regular scheduled medications. Single orders (C) are one-time administrations. Stat orders (D) are immediate, one-time orders. ________________________________________ 9. The pharmacist explains that a medication has a half-life of 4 hours. The nurse understands this means: A) The drug will be completely eliminated in 4 hours B) The body eliminates 50% of the drug in 4 hours C) The drug reaches peak concentration in 4 hours D) The drug is 50% effective in 4 hours

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NU 150 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
COMPLETE WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES




1. A patient is prescribed a medication that must be placed under the tongue
and allowed to dissolve. The nurse correctly identifies this route as:
A) Buccal administration
B) Sublingual administration
C) Oral administration
D) Topical administration
Answer: B) Sublingual administration
Rationale: Sublingual drugs are placed under the tongue and must not be
swallowed or chewed. They are absorbed through the mucous membranes directly
into the bloodstream. Buccal drugs (A) are absorbed through the mucous
membranes of the cheek. Oral administration (C) involves swallowing the
medication. Topical administration (D) involves application to the skin.


2. The nurse is preparing to administer lispro insulin to a patient with diabetes.
When should this medication be administered?
A) 30-45 minutes before a meal
B) At bedtime regardless of meals
C) 15 minutes before or immediately after a meal
D) 1 hour before a meal
Answer: C) 15 minutes before or immediately after a meal

,Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog commonly used for mealtime
insulin coverage. It should be given subcutaneously 15 minutes before or
immediately after a meal. It has a rapid onset of action (about 15 minutes) and
peaks in 30-90 minutes.


3. A patient's laboratory results show an A1C level of 6.8%. The nurse interprets
this finding as:
A) Normal
B) Prediabetic
C) Diabetic
D) Inconclusive
Answer: C) Diabetic
Rationale: A1C levels greater than 6.5% indicate diabetes. Normal A1C is <5.7%,
prediabetic is 5.7%-6.4%, and diabetic is >6.5%. An A1C of 6.8% falls into the
diabetic range, indicating poor glycemic control over the past 2-3 months.


4. The nurse administers a medication and the patient states, "This pill looks
different from what I usually take." What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Tell the patient it's the same medication from a different manufacturer
B) Administer the medication as ordered
C) Stop administration and verify the medication
D) Document the patient's comment after giving the medication
Answer: C) Stop administration and verify the medication
Rationale: Patient comments such as "this drug looks different" should be taken
seriously and require the nurse to verify the medication before administration. This
is one of the key considerations before medication administration, along with
allergy history, previous adverse reactions, changes in patient condition, and
changes in vital signs.

,5. The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 was established to:
A) Regulate drugs that have potential for harm
B) Ensure all medications are affordable
C) Require generic substitution for all prescriptions
D) Limit the number of medications a patient can receive
Answer: A) Regulate drugs that have potential for harm
Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 regulates drugs that have
potential for abuse and harm. It established schedules (I-V) for controlled
substances based on their potential for abuse and accepted medical use. This act
helps prevent drug abuse and diversion.


6. A patient is ordered to receive a medication for hypertension on a regular,
ongoing basis. The nurse recognizes this type of order as:
A) PRN order
B) Standing order
C) Single order
D) Stat order
Answer: B) Standing order
Rationale: A standing order is a written order that specifies a medication is to be
given on a regular basis. PRN orders (B) are administered as needed. Single orders
(C) are given one time only. Stat orders (D) are one-time orders given as soon as
possible.


7. The nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has significant edema.
Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Furosemide

, C) Lispro
D) Metformin
Answer: B) Furosemide
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat edema associated
with heart failure or renal impairment. It works by blocking the reabsorption of
sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle, producing significant diuresis.
Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic used for hypertension and mild
edema but is less potent than loop diuretics.


8. A medication order reads "give as needed for pain." The nurse identifies this
as which type of order?
A) Standing order
B) PRN order
C) Single order
D) Stat order
Answer: B) PRN order
Rationale: A PRN (pro re nata) order means "as needed." This type of order allows
the nurse to administer the medication when the patient requires it based on
assessment findings. Standing orders (A) are regular scheduled medications. Single
orders (C) are one-time administrations. Stat orders (D) are immediate, one-time
orders.


9. The pharmacist explains that a medication has a half-life of 4 hours. The nurse
understands this means:
A) The drug will be completely eliminated in 4 hours
B) The body eliminates 50% of the drug in 4 hours
C) The drug reaches peak concentration in 4 hours
D) The drug is 50% effective in 4 hours

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