AND VERIFIED ANSWERS BUNDLE (MOST
RECENT) GRADED A+
This comprehensive study bank contains real-style HESI PN Exit Exam questions
complete with correct answers and highly detailed, bolded rationales. Every
item is strategically formatted to mirror actual exam patterns, emphasizing
pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing, and high-priority clinical judgment
scenarios. It serves as an exceptional high-yield resource designed to guarantee
top-tier academic performance and an immediate grade boost.
Question 1
A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative
following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings is the
priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Incisional pain rated as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours
D. Serosanguineous drainage on the abdominal dressing
Answer: C
Rationale: A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hour indicates potential renal
failure, hypovolemia, or urinary retention, making it the highest priority
complication. While incisional pain and absent bowel sounds are expected 24
hours postoperatively, they must be managed but do not take precedence over
inadequate renal perfusion. Serosanguineous drainage is also an expected
finding at this stage.
,Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an infant. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take before administering the medication?
A. Measure the infant's blood pressure.
B. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute.
C. Assess the infant's anterior fontanel.
D. Check the infant's axillary temperature.
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin decreases the heart rate. The nurse must count the apical
pulse for a full minute prior to administration. For an infant, the medication
should be withheld, and the provider notified, if the apical pulse is less than 90
beats per minute (or less than 60 beats per minute for an adult).
Question 3
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and dizzy.
Which of the following actions should the LPN take first?
A. Administer 15 grams of rapidly acting carbohydrates.
B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
C. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Administer the scheduled dose of regular insulin.
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting classic signs of hypoglycemia. In clinical
practice, if a glucometer is immediately available, the nurse should check the
blood glucose level first to confirm hypoglycemia before administering
carbohydrates. However, if a glucometer is unavailable, treating immediately is
acceptable. Validating the glycemic status provides data for exact interventions.
Insulin would lower the blood sugar further and is contraindicated.
Question 4
An LPN is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new prescription
for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Increase intake of dark green leafy vegetables.
,B. Use a hard-bristled toothbrush to ensure clean gums.
C. Avoid the use of over-the-counter acetaminophen.
D. Report any black, tarry stools to the healthcare provider.
Answer: D
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding.
Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding and must be reported
immediately. Dark green leafy vegetables are high in Vitamin K (the antidote)
and can decrease warfarin's effectiveness; intake should remain consistent, not
increase. A soft-bristled toothbrush should be used to prevent gum bleeding.
Question 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a suspected placenta previa.
Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?
A. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
B. Rigid, board-like abdomen
C. Severe, continuous abdominal pain
D. Intermittent uterine contractions
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding during the second or third
trimester is the hallmark sign of placenta previa. A rigid, board-like abdomen
and severe abdominal pain are classic indications of abruptio placentae, which is
a medical emergency.
Question 6
A client is admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of active pulmonary tuberculosis
(TB). Which of the following transmission-based precautions must the nurse
implement?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. Protective environment
, Answer: B
Rationale: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles that
remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions are mandatory, requiring a
negative-pressure airflow room and the use of an N95 respirator mask by all
healthcare personnel entering the room.
Question 7
An LPN is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a 6-month-
old infant. Which of the following anatomical sites is the preferred choice for this
injection?
A. Dorsogluteal
B. Deltoid
C. Ventrogluteal
D. Vastus lateralis
Answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle (anterolateral thigh) is the preferred site
for IM injections in infants under 12 months of age because it is the most
developed muscle mass at this stage of growth. The dorsogluteal site should be
avoided due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve.
Question 8
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of 6.2
mEq/L. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the nurse
monitor for?
A. ST-segment depression
B. Prominent U waves
C. Tall, peaked T waves
D. Prolonged QT interval
Answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia.
Tall, peaked T waves are a classic early ECG manifestation of hyperkalemia. ST
depression and prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia.