Hondros BIO 117 Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Exam 3 Practice Test | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified
Questions
BIO 117 Exam 3 Latest Practice (Hondros) - 2026-2027 Questions and Answers Already Graded
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive practice test for Hondros BIO 117 Exam 3 covers 250 verified questions with
correct answers, designed to reinforce key concepts in anatomy and physiology. The document is
updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, reflecting the latest curriculum guidelines. Each question
includes a detailed rationale to enhance understanding and retention. Ideal for self-assessment and
exam preparation, this resource ensures students are thoroughly prepared for the exam.
Key Features:
250 verified questions with correct answers
Detailed rationales for each answer
Covers all major topics for Exam 3
Updated for 2026/2027 academic year
Aligned with Hondros curriculum guidelines
Includes distractors and explanations
Updates for 2026:
- Revised content to match 2026/2027 curriculum
- Added new questions on emerging topics
- Enhanced rationales for clarity and depth
- Updated answer keys for accuracy
- Incorporated student feedback for improvement
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive practice test for Hondros BIO 117 Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Exam 3, featuring 250 meticulously verified questions and correct answers. Designed for the 2026/2027 academic
year, it aligns with the latest Hondros curriculum and exam guidelines. Each question is accompanied by a
comprehensive rationale that explains the correct answer and addresses common distractors, facilitating deep
learning. The content spans all major systems covered in Exam 3, including the nervous, endocrine,
cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. This resource is invaluable for students
seeking to solidify their understanding and achieve a high score. The structured format allows for efficient review
and self-assessment, making it an essential tool for exam success.
Keywords:
Hondros BIO 117, Anatomy and Physiology, Exam 3, Practice Test, 250 Questions, Verified Answers, 2026/2027,
Nursing Exam Prep
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining why it is correct. Distractor
explanations are provided to clarify common misconceptions. Answers are formatted as 'Correct Answer: [letter]'
with the rationale in a separate paragraph.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified against latest curriculum
Answers graded A+ per Hondros standards
Page 1
, Rationales provided for every question
Updated for 2026/2027 academic year
Covers all Exam 3 content areas
Includes distractor analysis
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Nervous System 1-50 Neuron structure, action potential, synaptic 20%
transmission, CNS, PNS
Endocrine System 51-100 Hormone classification, feedback loops, 20%
major glands, disorders
Cardiovascular System 101-150 Heart anatomy, cardiac cycle, blood vessels, 20%
blood pressure regulation
Respiratory System 151-180 Lung anatomy, gas exchange, ventilation, 12%
oxygen transport
Digestive System 181-210 GI tract, accessory organs, digestion, 12%
absorption, metabolism
Urinary and Reproductive 211-250 Kidney function, urine formation, 16%
Systems male/female anatomy, gametogenesis
Page 2
,Q1. A researcher is investigating the mechanism by which keratinocytes in the stratum basale are replaced.
Which of the following best describes the process that ensures continuous renewal of the epidermis while
maintaining barrier integrity?
A. Stem cells in the stratum spinosum undergo asymmetric division, with one daughter cell migrating upward
and the other remaining to replenish the stem cell pool.
B. Keratinocytes in the stratum basale undergo mitosis; after division, one daughter cell remains in the basal
layer as a stem cell, while the other is pushed upward and undergoes terminal differentiation.
C. Melanocytes in the stratum basale proliferate and differentiate into keratinocytes that then migrate to the
surface.
D. Langerhans cells in the stratum granulosum dedifferentiate into keratinocyte precursors that repopulate the
basal layer.
Correct Answer: B. Keratinocytes in the stratum basale undergo mitosis; after division, one daughter cell
remains in the basal layer as a stem cell, while the other is pushed upward and undergoes terminal
differentiation.
Rationale: Epidermal renewal relies on stem cells in the stratum basale. These cells divide asymmetrically: one
daughter remains as a stem cell, the other (now a transit amplifying cell) divides a few times then differentiates and
moves upward. Option A incorrectly places stem cells in the stratum spinosum. Option C confuses melanocytes
(pigment cells) with keratinocyte precursors. Option D misrepresents Langerhans cells (immune cells) as capable
of dedifferentiation into keratinocytes.
Why Wrong:
A - Stem cells are located in the stratum basale, not the stratum spinosum.
C - Melanocytes produce melanin and do not differentiate into keratinocytes.
D - Langerhans cells are antigen-presenting cells and cannot dedifferentiate into keratinocytes.
Reference: Tortora, G.J. & Derrickson, B. (2024). Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 16th Ed., Ch. 5
Q2. During a surgical procedure, the parathyroid glands are inadvertently damaged. Which of the following
immediate physiological changes is most likely to occur?
A. Increased renal reabsorption of calcium and phosphate.
B. Decreased osteoclast activity leading to hypocalcemia.
C. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium due to elevated calcitriol.
D. Enhanced calcium deposition in bone due to increased calcitonin secretion.
Correct Answer: B. Decreased osteoclast activity leading to hypocalcemia.
Rationale: Parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases osteoclast activity, renal
calcium reabsorption, and renal phosphate excretion. Damage leads to PTH deficiency, reducing osteoclast activity
and causing hypocalcemia. Option A is incorrect because PTH increases phosphate excretion, not reabsorption.
Option C is incorrect because calcitriol synthesis is stimulated by PTH; without PTH, calcitriol decreases. Option
D is incorrect because calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid, not parathyroids, and its effect is minor in adults.
Why Wrong:
A - PTH increases phosphate excretion, not reabsorption; without PTH, phosphate reabsorption increases.
C - Calcitriol production is stimulated by PTH; without PTH, calcitriol levels drop, reducing intestinal
calcium absorption.
D - Calcitonin is from the thyroid gland and its primary effect is to lower blood calcium, but it is not directly
affected by parathyroid damage.
Reference: Widmaier, E.P. et al. (2023). Vander's Human Physiology, 16th Ed., Ch. 11
Q3. A researcher is studying the effect of a novel drug that blocks the binding of ATP to myosin heads. Which
of the following would be the most immediate consequence at the sarcomere level during a contraction?
A. Myosin heads remain tightly bound to actin, preventing relaxation.
B. The power stroke cannot occur because the myosin head cannot release ADP.
Page 3
, C. Calcium ions cannot bind to troponin, so cross-bridge cycling is inhibited.
D. The sarcomere shortens uncontrollably due to unregulated actin-myosin binding.
Correct Answer: A. Myosin heads remain tightly bound to actin, preventing relaxation.
Rationale: ATP binding to the myosin head is required for its detachment from actin after the power stroke. Without ATP,
myosin heads remain in a rigor complex with actin, preventing relaxation. This is the basis of rigor mortis. Option B is
incorrect because the power stroke occurs before ATP binding; the problem is detachment. Option C is incorrect because
calcium binding to troponin is upstream of cross-bridge formation. Option D is incorrect because without ATP, no further
cycles occur, and the sarcomere cannot shorten further.
Why Wrong:
B - The power stroke is driven by release of ADP and Pi; ATP is needed for detachment, not for the power stroke itself.
C - Calcium binding to troponin is independent of ATP; the block would affect detachment, not calcium signaling.
D - Without ATP, myosin heads cannot detach, but they also cannot re-cock; the sarcomere remains in a fixed contracted
state, not uncontrolled shortening.
Reference: Silverthorn, D.U. (2024). Human Physiology, 9th Ed., Ch. 12
Q4. A patient presents with a lesion on the left side of the spinal cord at the T10 level. Which of the following
sensory deficits would the patient most likely exhibit?
A. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below T10, and loss of proprioception on the right
side below T10.
B. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side below T10, and loss of proprioception on the left
side below T10.
C. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below T10, with intact proprioception bilaterally.
D. Loss of proprioception on the left side below T10, with intact pain and temperature sensation bilaterally.
Correct Answer: B. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side below T10, and loss of
proprioception on the left side below T10.
Rationale: The spinothalamic tract (pain/temperature) decussates within one or two segments of entry, so a
left-sided lesion affects the right side of the body below that level. The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
(proprioception) decussates in the medulla, so a left-sided lesion affects the left side. Thus, left lesion -> right loss
of pain/temp, left loss of proprioception. Option A reverses the pattern. Option C incorrectly suggests intact
proprioception. Option D incorrectly suggests intact pain/temp.
Why Wrong:
A - This describes a right-sided lesion pattern, not left.
C - Proprioception would be lost on the left side due to lesion of the left dorsal column.
D - Pain and temperature would be lost on the right side due to lesion of the left spinothalamic tract.
Reference: Purves, D. et al. (2023). Neuroscience, 7th Ed., Ch. 9
Q5. A patient with a traumatic brain injury exhibits an inability to coordinate voluntary movements,
intention tremors, and a wide-based gait. Which area of the brain is most likely damaged?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellum
D. Vestibular nuclei
Correct Answer: C. Cerebellum
Rationale: The cerebellum is responsible for coordination of voluntary movements, balance, and fine motor
control. Damage leads to ataxia, intention tremors, and dysmetria. The primary motor cortex (A) would cause
contralateral weakness or paralysis, not coordination deficits. Basal ganglia (B) damage leads to disorders like
Parkinson's (rigidity, bradykinesia) or Huntington's (chorea), not intention tremors. Vestibular nuclei (D) damage
causes vertigo and nystagmus, not coordination of limbs.
Why Wrong:
Page 4
Exam 3 Practice Test | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified
Questions
BIO 117 Exam 3 Latest Practice (Hondros) - 2026-2027 Questions and Answers Already Graded
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive practice test for Hondros BIO 117 Exam 3 covers 250 verified questions with
correct answers, designed to reinforce key concepts in anatomy and physiology. The document is
updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, reflecting the latest curriculum guidelines. Each question
includes a detailed rationale to enhance understanding and retention. Ideal for self-assessment and
exam preparation, this resource ensures students are thoroughly prepared for the exam.
Key Features:
250 verified questions with correct answers
Detailed rationales for each answer
Covers all major topics for Exam 3
Updated for 2026/2027 academic year
Aligned with Hondros curriculum guidelines
Includes distractors and explanations
Updates for 2026:
- Revised content to match 2026/2027 curriculum
- Added new questions on emerging topics
- Enhanced rationales for clarity and depth
- Updated answer keys for accuracy
- Incorporated student feedback for improvement
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive practice test for Hondros BIO 117 Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Exam 3, featuring 250 meticulously verified questions and correct answers. Designed for the 2026/2027 academic
year, it aligns with the latest Hondros curriculum and exam guidelines. Each question is accompanied by a
comprehensive rationale that explains the correct answer and addresses common distractors, facilitating deep
learning. The content spans all major systems covered in Exam 3, including the nervous, endocrine,
cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. This resource is invaluable for students
seeking to solidify their understanding and achieve a high score. The structured format allows for efficient review
and self-assessment, making it an essential tool for exam success.
Keywords:
Hondros BIO 117, Anatomy and Physiology, Exam 3, Practice Test, 250 Questions, Verified Answers, 2026/2027,
Nursing Exam Prep
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining why it is correct. Distractor
explanations are provided to clarify common misconceptions. Answers are formatted as 'Correct Answer: [letter]'
with the rationale in a separate paragraph.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified against latest curriculum
Answers graded A+ per Hondros standards
Page 1
, Rationales provided for every question
Updated for 2026/2027 academic year
Covers all Exam 3 content areas
Includes distractor analysis
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Nervous System 1-50 Neuron structure, action potential, synaptic 20%
transmission, CNS, PNS
Endocrine System 51-100 Hormone classification, feedback loops, 20%
major glands, disorders
Cardiovascular System 101-150 Heart anatomy, cardiac cycle, blood vessels, 20%
blood pressure regulation
Respiratory System 151-180 Lung anatomy, gas exchange, ventilation, 12%
oxygen transport
Digestive System 181-210 GI tract, accessory organs, digestion, 12%
absorption, metabolism
Urinary and Reproductive 211-250 Kidney function, urine formation, 16%
Systems male/female anatomy, gametogenesis
Page 2
,Q1. A researcher is investigating the mechanism by which keratinocytes in the stratum basale are replaced.
Which of the following best describes the process that ensures continuous renewal of the epidermis while
maintaining barrier integrity?
A. Stem cells in the stratum spinosum undergo asymmetric division, with one daughter cell migrating upward
and the other remaining to replenish the stem cell pool.
B. Keratinocytes in the stratum basale undergo mitosis; after division, one daughter cell remains in the basal
layer as a stem cell, while the other is pushed upward and undergoes terminal differentiation.
C. Melanocytes in the stratum basale proliferate and differentiate into keratinocytes that then migrate to the
surface.
D. Langerhans cells in the stratum granulosum dedifferentiate into keratinocyte precursors that repopulate the
basal layer.
Correct Answer: B. Keratinocytes in the stratum basale undergo mitosis; after division, one daughter cell
remains in the basal layer as a stem cell, while the other is pushed upward and undergoes terminal
differentiation.
Rationale: Epidermal renewal relies on stem cells in the stratum basale. These cells divide asymmetrically: one
daughter remains as a stem cell, the other (now a transit amplifying cell) divides a few times then differentiates and
moves upward. Option A incorrectly places stem cells in the stratum spinosum. Option C confuses melanocytes
(pigment cells) with keratinocyte precursors. Option D misrepresents Langerhans cells (immune cells) as capable
of dedifferentiation into keratinocytes.
Why Wrong:
A - Stem cells are located in the stratum basale, not the stratum spinosum.
C - Melanocytes produce melanin and do not differentiate into keratinocytes.
D - Langerhans cells are antigen-presenting cells and cannot dedifferentiate into keratinocytes.
Reference: Tortora, G.J. & Derrickson, B. (2024). Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 16th Ed., Ch. 5
Q2. During a surgical procedure, the parathyroid glands are inadvertently damaged. Which of the following
immediate physiological changes is most likely to occur?
A. Increased renal reabsorption of calcium and phosphate.
B. Decreased osteoclast activity leading to hypocalcemia.
C. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium due to elevated calcitriol.
D. Enhanced calcium deposition in bone due to increased calcitonin secretion.
Correct Answer: B. Decreased osteoclast activity leading to hypocalcemia.
Rationale: Parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases osteoclast activity, renal
calcium reabsorption, and renal phosphate excretion. Damage leads to PTH deficiency, reducing osteoclast activity
and causing hypocalcemia. Option A is incorrect because PTH increases phosphate excretion, not reabsorption.
Option C is incorrect because calcitriol synthesis is stimulated by PTH; without PTH, calcitriol decreases. Option
D is incorrect because calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid, not parathyroids, and its effect is minor in adults.
Why Wrong:
A - PTH increases phosphate excretion, not reabsorption; without PTH, phosphate reabsorption increases.
C - Calcitriol production is stimulated by PTH; without PTH, calcitriol levels drop, reducing intestinal
calcium absorption.
D - Calcitonin is from the thyroid gland and its primary effect is to lower blood calcium, but it is not directly
affected by parathyroid damage.
Reference: Widmaier, E.P. et al. (2023). Vander's Human Physiology, 16th Ed., Ch. 11
Q3. A researcher is studying the effect of a novel drug that blocks the binding of ATP to myosin heads. Which
of the following would be the most immediate consequence at the sarcomere level during a contraction?
A. Myosin heads remain tightly bound to actin, preventing relaxation.
B. The power stroke cannot occur because the myosin head cannot release ADP.
Page 3
, C. Calcium ions cannot bind to troponin, so cross-bridge cycling is inhibited.
D. The sarcomere shortens uncontrollably due to unregulated actin-myosin binding.
Correct Answer: A. Myosin heads remain tightly bound to actin, preventing relaxation.
Rationale: ATP binding to the myosin head is required for its detachment from actin after the power stroke. Without ATP,
myosin heads remain in a rigor complex with actin, preventing relaxation. This is the basis of rigor mortis. Option B is
incorrect because the power stroke occurs before ATP binding; the problem is detachment. Option C is incorrect because
calcium binding to troponin is upstream of cross-bridge formation. Option D is incorrect because without ATP, no further
cycles occur, and the sarcomere cannot shorten further.
Why Wrong:
B - The power stroke is driven by release of ADP and Pi; ATP is needed for detachment, not for the power stroke itself.
C - Calcium binding to troponin is independent of ATP; the block would affect detachment, not calcium signaling.
D - Without ATP, myosin heads cannot detach, but they also cannot re-cock; the sarcomere remains in a fixed contracted
state, not uncontrolled shortening.
Reference: Silverthorn, D.U. (2024). Human Physiology, 9th Ed., Ch. 12
Q4. A patient presents with a lesion on the left side of the spinal cord at the T10 level. Which of the following
sensory deficits would the patient most likely exhibit?
A. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below T10, and loss of proprioception on the right
side below T10.
B. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side below T10, and loss of proprioception on the left
side below T10.
C. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below T10, with intact proprioception bilaterally.
D. Loss of proprioception on the left side below T10, with intact pain and temperature sensation bilaterally.
Correct Answer: B. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side below T10, and loss of
proprioception on the left side below T10.
Rationale: The spinothalamic tract (pain/temperature) decussates within one or two segments of entry, so a
left-sided lesion affects the right side of the body below that level. The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
(proprioception) decussates in the medulla, so a left-sided lesion affects the left side. Thus, left lesion -> right loss
of pain/temp, left loss of proprioception. Option A reverses the pattern. Option C incorrectly suggests intact
proprioception. Option D incorrectly suggests intact pain/temp.
Why Wrong:
A - This describes a right-sided lesion pattern, not left.
C - Proprioception would be lost on the left side due to lesion of the left dorsal column.
D - Pain and temperature would be lost on the right side due to lesion of the left spinothalamic tract.
Reference: Purves, D. et al. (2023). Neuroscience, 7th Ed., Ch. 9
Q5. A patient with a traumatic brain injury exhibits an inability to coordinate voluntary movements,
intention tremors, and a wide-based gait. Which area of the brain is most likely damaged?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellum
D. Vestibular nuclei
Correct Answer: C. Cerebellum
Rationale: The cerebellum is responsible for coordination of voluntary movements, balance, and fine motor
control. Damage leads to ataxia, intention tremors, and dysmetria. The primary motor cortex (A) would cause
contralateral weakness or paralysis, not coordination deficits. Basal ganglia (B) damage leads to disorders like
Parkinson's (rigidity, bradykinesia) or Huntington's (chorea), not intention tremors. Vestibular nuclei (D) damage
causes vertigo and nystagmus, not coordination of limbs.
Why Wrong:
Page 4
