ARMRIT MRI Registry Review and Practice Exam Guide Questions and Answers
Patient Care & Safety (1–50)
1. Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis (NSF) is associated with which agent in
patients with severe renal failure? A) Iodine B) Gadolinium C) Barium D)
Microbubbles
Answer: B
2. What is the generally accepted GFR threshold below which Group I GBCAs
are contraindicated? A) < 60 B) < 45 C) < 30 D) < 15
Answer: C
3. Which GBCA class is considered safest for patients with renal impairment?
A) Linear non-ionic B) Linear ionic C) Macrocyclic non-ionic D) Macrocyclic
ionic
Answer: C
4. What is the primary cause of acoustic noise in an MRI scanner? A) RF
pulses B) Gradient coil vibrations C) Helium pump D) Patient movement
Answer: B
5. Peripheral Nerve Stimulation (PNS) is caused by: A) Static magnetic field B)
RF heating C) Rapidly switching gradient fields D) Helium quench
Answer: C
6. SAR stands for: A) Specific Absorption Rate B) Signal Amplitude Ratio C)
Spatial Acquisition Rate D) Specific Acoustic Resonance
Answer: A
7. Which MRI safety zone is the scanner room itself? A) Zone I B) Zone II C)
Zone III D) Zone IV
Answer: D
8. The translational force exerted on a ferromagnetic object in a magnetic
field is called the: A) Torque effect B) Projectile effect C) Zeeman effect D)
Faraday effect
Answer: B
9. What is the immediate action if a patient goes into cardiac arrest in Zone
IV? A) Move patient out of the room B) Call a Code Blue and bring the crash
cart in C) Quench the magnet immediately D) Start CPR and bring in
ferromagnetic equipment
Answer: A
10. A rapid loss of superconductivity, resulting in the boiling off of helium, is
called a: A) Surge B) Quench C) Ramp D) Shim
Answer: B
11. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to MRI? A)
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,Titanium joint replacement B) Ferromagnetic pacemaker C) Dental amalgam
D) Surgical staples
Answer: B
12. What is the main concern regarding tattoos and permanent makeup in
MRI? A) Image distortion B) RF heating and skin burns C) Magnetic
displacement D) Allergic reaction
Answer: B
13. A patient with an insulin pump needs an MRI. The best course of action
is: A) Remove the pump before entering Zone III B) Turn it off and leave it on
the patient C) Scan without any precautions D) Quench the magnet
Answer: A
14. Which artifact is caused by the patient's respiratory motion? A) Zipper B)
Ghosting C) Truncation D) Aliasing
Answer: B
15. To minimize SAR, the technologist should: A) Increase flip angle B)
Decrease TR C) Use spin echo instead of gradient echo D) Decrease flip angle
or increase TR
Answer: D
16. What is the FDA recommendation regarding breastfeeding after IV GBCA
administration? A) Stop breastfeeding for 24 hours B) Stop breastfeeding for
48 hours C) Mothers may continue breastfeeding D) Pump and dump for 3
days
Answer: C
17. Which of the following aneurysm clips is safe for MRI? A) Unspecified
stainless steel B) Titanium C) Cobalt-chromium D) Unknown ferromagnetic
Answer: B
18. The maximum allowable whole-body SAR for normal operating mode is:
A) 1.0 W/kg B) 2.0 W/kg C) 4.0 W/kg D) 8.0 W/kg
Answer: B
19. A patient has a metallic foreign body in the eye. The appropriate action is:
A) Scan with T2* GRE B) Obtain orbital X-rays/CT to rule out ferromagnetic
material C) Scan with high SAR D) Quench the magnet
Answer: B
20. Contrast extravasation is best treated initially by: A) Applying heat B)
Applying cold compress and elevating the arm C) Immediate surgery D)
Ignoring it
Answer: B
21. Which of the following is a Group II GBCA? A) Gadopentetate B)
Gadodiamide C) Gadobutrol D) Gadoversetamide
Answer: C
22. The primary mechanism of GBCA excretion is: A) Hepatic B) Renal C)
Pulmonary D) Gastrointestinal
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, Answer: B
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Patient Care & Safety (1–50)
1. Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis (NSF) is associated with which agent in
patients with severe renal failure? A) Iodine B) Gadolinium C) Barium D)
Microbubbles
Answer: B
2. What is the generally accepted GFR threshold below which Group I GBCAs
are contraindicated? A) < 60 B) < 45 C) < 30 D) < 15
Answer: C
3. Which GBCA class is considered safest for patients with renal impairment?
A) Linear non-ionic B) Linear ionic C) Macrocyclic non-ionic D) Macrocyclic
ionic
Answer: C
4. What is the primary cause of acoustic noise in an MRI scanner? A) RF
pulses B) Gradient coil vibrations C) Helium pump D) Patient movement
Answer: B
5. Peripheral Nerve Stimulation (PNS) is caused by: A) Static magnetic field B)
RF heating C) Rapidly switching gradient fields D) Helium quench
Answer: C
6. SAR stands for: A) Specific Absorption Rate B) Signal Amplitude Ratio C)
Spatial Acquisition Rate D) Specific Acoustic Resonance
Answer: A
7. Which MRI safety zone is the scanner room itself? A) Zone I B) Zone II C)
Zone III D) Zone IV
Answer: D
8. The translational force exerted on a ferromagnetic object in a magnetic
field is called the: A) Torque effect B) Projectile effect C) Zeeman effect D)
Faraday effect
Answer: B
9. What is the immediate action if a patient goes into cardiac arrest in Zone
IV? A) Move patient out of the room B) Call a Code Blue and bring the crash
cart in C) Quench the magnet immediately D) Start CPR and bring in
ferromagnetic equipment
Answer: A
10. A rapid loss of superconductivity, resulting in the boiling off of helium, is
called a: A) Surge B) Quench C) Ramp D) Shim
Answer: B
11. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to MRI? A)
Page 1 of 18
,Titanium joint replacement B) Ferromagnetic pacemaker C) Dental amalgam
D) Surgical staples
Answer: B
12. What is the main concern regarding tattoos and permanent makeup in
MRI? A) Image distortion B) RF heating and skin burns C) Magnetic
displacement D) Allergic reaction
Answer: B
13. A patient with an insulin pump needs an MRI. The best course of action
is: A) Remove the pump before entering Zone III B) Turn it off and leave it on
the patient C) Scan without any precautions D) Quench the magnet
Answer: A
14. Which artifact is caused by the patient's respiratory motion? A) Zipper B)
Ghosting C) Truncation D) Aliasing
Answer: B
15. To minimize SAR, the technologist should: A) Increase flip angle B)
Decrease TR C) Use spin echo instead of gradient echo D) Decrease flip angle
or increase TR
Answer: D
16. What is the FDA recommendation regarding breastfeeding after IV GBCA
administration? A) Stop breastfeeding for 24 hours B) Stop breastfeeding for
48 hours C) Mothers may continue breastfeeding D) Pump and dump for 3
days
Answer: C
17. Which of the following aneurysm clips is safe for MRI? A) Unspecified
stainless steel B) Titanium C) Cobalt-chromium D) Unknown ferromagnetic
Answer: B
18. The maximum allowable whole-body SAR for normal operating mode is:
A) 1.0 W/kg B) 2.0 W/kg C) 4.0 W/kg D) 8.0 W/kg
Answer: B
19. A patient has a metallic foreign body in the eye. The appropriate action is:
A) Scan with T2* GRE B) Obtain orbital X-rays/CT to rule out ferromagnetic
material C) Scan with high SAR D) Quench the magnet
Answer: B
20. Contrast extravasation is best treated initially by: A) Applying heat B)
Applying cold compress and elevating the arm C) Immediate surgery D)
Ignoring it
Answer: B
21. Which of the following is a Group II GBCA? A) Gadopentetate B)
Gadodiamide C) Gadobutrol D) Gadoversetamide
Answer: C
22. The primary mechanism of GBCA excretion is: A) Hepatic B) Renal C)
Pulmonary D) Gastrointestinal
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, Answer: B
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