RESNA Assistive Technology Professional (ATP)
Certification Exam Prep Document 2026/2027 |
Complex Rehabilitation Technology & Assistive
Devices | 150 Verified Questions with Detailed
Rationales
DOMAIN I: ASSESSMENT OF NEED
1. A client with a C5 spinal cord injury requires a power wheelchair. During the
seating assessment, which physical constraint is the MOST critical to evaluate
first when determining the joystick mounting location?
• A) Grip strength
• B) Active range of motion of the upper extremity
• C) Static sitting balance
• D) Passive hamstring flexibility
Correct Answer: B) Active range of motion of the upper extremity
Rationale: A client with a C5 injury retains shoulder function and elbow flexion but
lacks wrist extension and hand function. Assessing active range of motion
determines where the client can reliably reach to activate a control interface. This
is foundational to determining which body site can operate the device.
2. An ATP is assessing an 8-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy for
an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device. Which
assessment model focuses most heavily on identifying the child's current
capabilities versus the communication demands of their peer group?
• A) The Human Activity Assistive Technology (HAAT) model
, • B) The Participation Model
• C) The Matching Person and Technology (MPT) model
• D) The Student-Environment-Task-Tool (SETT) framework
Correct Answer: B) The Participation Model
Rationale: The Participation Model is specifically designed for AAC assessments. It
emphasizes comparing the user's communication patterns with those of able-
bodied peers to identify and bridge opportunity or access barriers.
3. During a seating evaluation, a flexible posterior pelvic tilt is identified. What is
the primary positioning intervention the ATP should recommend?
• A) A pre-seat contour wedge to block forward migration
• B) An aggressive lumbar roll to force lordosis
• C) A firm seat cushion with a contoured well and a properly angled pelvic
positioning belt
• D) An open seat-to-back angle greater than 110 degrees
Correct Answer: C) A firm seat cushion with a contoured well and a properly
angled pelvic positioning belt
Rationale: If a deformity is flexible, the seating system should attempt to correct it
toward a neutral alignment. A firm, contoured cushion provides a stable base, and
a pelvic positioning belt angled downward prevents the pelvis from sliding into a
posterior tilt.
4. A client presents with a fixed scoliosis and pelvic obliquity. How should the
custom seating system handle these orthopedic deformities?
• A) Accommodate the fixed posture with asymmetrical support to distribute
pressure evenly
• B) Use aggressive three-point force lateral pads to straighten the spine
• C) Position a wedge under the high side of the pelvis to force it level
, • D) Recommend a generic off-the-shelf linear foam backrest
Correct Answer: A) Accommodate the fixed posture with asymmetrical support
to distribute pressure evenly
Rationale: Fixed deformities cannot be corrected without causing pain, tissue
damage, or autonomic dysreflexia. Seating systems must accommodate fixed
deformities by mirroring the shape to distribute pressure and prevent skin
breakdown.
5. When evaluating an individual with a progressive neurological condition like
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) for assistive technology, what is the MOST
important planning factor?
• A) Selecting an interface that relies purely on current fine motor finger
control
• B) Minimizing the complexity of the initial training protocol
• C) Anticipating future functional decline by choosing expandable and
adaptable systems
• D) Standardizing the assessment to a single point in time
Correct Answer: C) Anticipating future functional decline by choosing
expandable and adaptable systems
Rationale: Assistive technology for progressive conditions must anticipate
changing needs. Selecting an expandable system (e.g., a power wheelchair
electronics system that can transition from a joystick to switch access) ensures
long-term utility and reduces the need for costly replacements.
6. What is the primary purpose of conducting a visual-perceptual assessment
during an evaluation for a power mobility device?
• A) To determine if the client can see small text on a communication screen
• B) To evaluate the client's spatial awareness, depth perception, and ability
to safely avoid obstacles
, • C) To assess the physical strength of the extraocular muscles
• D) To measure the exact boundaries of the peripheral visual field
Correct Answer: B) To evaluate the client's spatial awareness, depth perception,
and ability to safely avoid obstacles
Rationale: Visual-perceptual skills allow a user to interpret spatial relationships.
Safe power wheelchair navigation requires adequate depth perception and spatial
awareness to judge clearances and avoid hazards.
7. An ATP is assessing a client with a C4 spinal cord injury for a power
wheelchair. Which driving control method is MOST appropriate for someone
with this level of injury?
• A) Proportional joystick with chin control
• B) Head array or sip-and-puff system
• C) Standard hand-operated joystick
• D) Foot-operated joystick
Correct Answer: B) Head array or sip-and-puff system
Rationale: A client with a C4 injury typically has shoulder and neck movement but
lacks hand function. A head array (using neck movement to activate switches) or a
sip-and-puff (pneumatic) system are appropriate control methods. A standard
joystick requires hand function not present at C4.
8. During a seating assessment, the ATP observes that a client's trunk leans to
the right when seated. Which of the following is the correct progression for
addressing this postural deviation?
• A) Immediately add a right lateral thoracic support
• B) Assess whether the lean is flexible or fixed first
• C) Widen the seat width to allow more space
• D) Recommend a left lateral support to push the trunk to the right
Certification Exam Prep Document 2026/2027 |
Complex Rehabilitation Technology & Assistive
Devices | 150 Verified Questions with Detailed
Rationales
DOMAIN I: ASSESSMENT OF NEED
1. A client with a C5 spinal cord injury requires a power wheelchair. During the
seating assessment, which physical constraint is the MOST critical to evaluate
first when determining the joystick mounting location?
• A) Grip strength
• B) Active range of motion of the upper extremity
• C) Static sitting balance
• D) Passive hamstring flexibility
Correct Answer: B) Active range of motion of the upper extremity
Rationale: A client with a C5 injury retains shoulder function and elbow flexion but
lacks wrist extension and hand function. Assessing active range of motion
determines where the client can reliably reach to activate a control interface. This
is foundational to determining which body site can operate the device.
2. An ATP is assessing an 8-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy for
an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device. Which
assessment model focuses most heavily on identifying the child's current
capabilities versus the communication demands of their peer group?
• A) The Human Activity Assistive Technology (HAAT) model
, • B) The Participation Model
• C) The Matching Person and Technology (MPT) model
• D) The Student-Environment-Task-Tool (SETT) framework
Correct Answer: B) The Participation Model
Rationale: The Participation Model is specifically designed for AAC assessments. It
emphasizes comparing the user's communication patterns with those of able-
bodied peers to identify and bridge opportunity or access barriers.
3. During a seating evaluation, a flexible posterior pelvic tilt is identified. What is
the primary positioning intervention the ATP should recommend?
• A) A pre-seat contour wedge to block forward migration
• B) An aggressive lumbar roll to force lordosis
• C) A firm seat cushion with a contoured well and a properly angled pelvic
positioning belt
• D) An open seat-to-back angle greater than 110 degrees
Correct Answer: C) A firm seat cushion with a contoured well and a properly
angled pelvic positioning belt
Rationale: If a deformity is flexible, the seating system should attempt to correct it
toward a neutral alignment. A firm, contoured cushion provides a stable base, and
a pelvic positioning belt angled downward prevents the pelvis from sliding into a
posterior tilt.
4. A client presents with a fixed scoliosis and pelvic obliquity. How should the
custom seating system handle these orthopedic deformities?
• A) Accommodate the fixed posture with asymmetrical support to distribute
pressure evenly
• B) Use aggressive three-point force lateral pads to straighten the spine
• C) Position a wedge under the high side of the pelvis to force it level
, • D) Recommend a generic off-the-shelf linear foam backrest
Correct Answer: A) Accommodate the fixed posture with asymmetrical support
to distribute pressure evenly
Rationale: Fixed deformities cannot be corrected without causing pain, tissue
damage, or autonomic dysreflexia. Seating systems must accommodate fixed
deformities by mirroring the shape to distribute pressure and prevent skin
breakdown.
5. When evaluating an individual with a progressive neurological condition like
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) for assistive technology, what is the MOST
important planning factor?
• A) Selecting an interface that relies purely on current fine motor finger
control
• B) Minimizing the complexity of the initial training protocol
• C) Anticipating future functional decline by choosing expandable and
adaptable systems
• D) Standardizing the assessment to a single point in time
Correct Answer: C) Anticipating future functional decline by choosing
expandable and adaptable systems
Rationale: Assistive technology for progressive conditions must anticipate
changing needs. Selecting an expandable system (e.g., a power wheelchair
electronics system that can transition from a joystick to switch access) ensures
long-term utility and reduces the need for costly replacements.
6. What is the primary purpose of conducting a visual-perceptual assessment
during an evaluation for a power mobility device?
• A) To determine if the client can see small text on a communication screen
• B) To evaluate the client's spatial awareness, depth perception, and ability
to safely avoid obstacles
, • C) To assess the physical strength of the extraocular muscles
• D) To measure the exact boundaries of the peripheral visual field
Correct Answer: B) To evaluate the client's spatial awareness, depth perception,
and ability to safely avoid obstacles
Rationale: Visual-perceptual skills allow a user to interpret spatial relationships.
Safe power wheelchair navigation requires adequate depth perception and spatial
awareness to judge clearances and avoid hazards.
7. An ATP is assessing a client with a C4 spinal cord injury for a power
wheelchair. Which driving control method is MOST appropriate for someone
with this level of injury?
• A) Proportional joystick with chin control
• B) Head array or sip-and-puff system
• C) Standard hand-operated joystick
• D) Foot-operated joystick
Correct Answer: B) Head array or sip-and-puff system
Rationale: A client with a C4 injury typically has shoulder and neck movement but
lacks hand function. A head array (using neck movement to activate switches) or a
sip-and-puff (pneumatic) system are appropriate control methods. A standard
joystick requires hand function not present at C4.
8. During a seating assessment, the ATP observes that a client's trunk leans to
the right when seated. Which of the following is the correct progression for
addressing this postural deviation?
• A) Immediately add a right lateral thoracic support
• B) Assess whether the lean is flexible or fixed first
• C) Widen the seat width to allow more space
• D) Recommend a left lateral support to push the trunk to the right
