ANSWERS |2026/2027 UPDATED |GUARANTEED PASS.
A 32-year-old woman presents with a recent onset of copious, green-yellow vaginal discharge.
Physical examination reveals "strawberry spots" on the cervix. The NP anticipates finding the
following on microscopic examination. - Answer -ans: Trichomoniasis (pics on the desk top)
flagella tail bacteria
A 36-year-old man presents with a 12-h history of anorexia, nausea, and right lower quadrant
abdominal pain.
A white blood cell count with differential demonstrates:
-TWBC=16,500 cells/mm3
-Neutrophils=66%
-Bands=8%
-Lymphocytes=22%
Expected physical examination findings include:
Murphy's sign.
A palpable left lower quadrant mass.
Periumbilical ecchymosis.
A positive obturator sign. - Answer -Ans:
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,A positive obturator sign (appendicitis)
When counseling patients to promote hepatitis C prevention, the nurse practitioner realizes the
most important measure from the list below is:
Safe sex practices.
Using single-use injection drug paraphernalia.
Strict handwashing.
Avoidance of raw seafood ingestion. - Answer -Ans: Using single-use injection drug
paraphernalia.
36-year-old man with asthma has been treating his asthma with albuterol once or twice a week
for the last few years. He reports that for the last month or so he has had to use it much more
often—"not every day, but almost." The nurse practitioner should consider all of the following
except:
Administering the Asthma Control Test questionnaire.
Spirometric assessment.
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,A complete symptom assessment.
Adding an inhaled long-acting beta2-agonist. - Answer -Ans: Adding an inhaled long-acting
beta2-agonist.
A 40-year-old man complains of a recurrent dry cough. He is not a smoker, has no airway
disease, and his history is significant only for recently diagnosed hypertension. He admits having
just started taking medication for his high blood pressure, but doesn't know what it is called.
The nurse practitioner suspects that he is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
Calcium channel antagonist.
Angiotensin receptor blocker.
Beta-adrenergic antagonist. - Answer -Ans: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
A characteristic feature of erythema migrans is:
Blanching to pressure.
Central clearing.
Rapid response to topical corticosteroids.
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, Intense pruritus. - Answer -Ans: Central clearing.
A patient with hypothyroidism is being started on thyroid hormone replacement therapy. The
nurse practitioner advises that the medication should be taken:
With 8 oz (236.6 mL) of milk.
On an empty stomach.
At bedtime.
Before a meal. - Answer -Ans: On an empty stomach.
A 47-year-old man of Northern European ancestry presents for evaluation of erythematous,
papular lesions on his forehead and chin. Which of the following differential diagnoses is most
likely?
Acne rosacea
Tinea facialis
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Atopic dermatitis - Answer -Ans: Acne rosacea
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