RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Form A
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice
Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers,
100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide
Nursing Board Exam
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Patient Safety & Infection Control Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders
Pharmacological Calculations & Interventions Maternal-Newborn Assessment & Complications
Pediatric Growth, Development & Immunization Mental Health Crisis Intervention & Therapeutic Communication
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Fundamentals of Nursing | Q1-Q20 | Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100%
Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 78-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a stage 3 pressure injury on the
sacrum. The nurse notes nonblanchable erythema on the right heel. Which action should
the nurse prioritize first?
A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the sacral wound.
B. Reposition the client off the right heel using a heel suspension device.
C. Document the heel as a stage 1 pressure injury in the electronic record.
D. Initiate a consultation with the wound care nurse for the sacral ulcer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The newly noted nonblanchable erythema on the heel indicates a stage 1 pressure injury and high risk for
further skin breakdown. Offloading the heel immediately prevents progression. While dressing the sacral
wound and consulting wound care are important, the new site of injury requires immediate intervention to
protect intact skin. Documenting without action does not protect the client.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol to a client whose
blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg and heart rate is 48 beats/min. The client reports dizziness
when standing. Which is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication and place the client in Trendelenburg position.
B. Give the medication and instruct the client to remain supine for 2 hours.
C. Withhold the medication and contact the prescriber to report the findings.
D. Administer half the prescribed dose and reassess vital signs in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower blood pressure and heart rate. With a systolic BP below 100
mmHg and heart rate below 60 beats/min, administration risks symptomatic bradycardia and hypotension. The
nurse should hold the dose and notify the prescriber. Administering the full or partial dose without prescriber
approval is outside nursing scope and unsafe.
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 54
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube connected to low
intermittent suction. The client reports nausea and abdominal distention. The nurse
notes that the suction canister contains 50 mL of dark green fluid over the past 8 hours.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check the tubing for kinks and verify the suction setting.
B. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with 30 mL of sterile normal saline.
C. Remove the tube and prepare to insert a new nasogastric tube.
D. Advance the tube 5 cm and secure it to the client's gown.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Reduced drainage with nausea and distention suggests the tube may be clogged or suction is not functioning
properly. Checking for kinks and verifying the suction setting is the least invasive first step and follows the
principle of checking equipment before intervening on the client. Irrigating without first verifying suction function
is premature. Removing or advancing the tube is unnecessary without first assessing the system.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. The nurse is reviewing a client's morning laboratory results. The potassium is 3.1
mEq/L, sodium is 138 mEq/L, and chloride is 102 mEq/L. The client is taking furosemide
40 mg daily. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake to 3 liters daily.
B. Request a prescription for a potassium-wasting diuretic instead.
C. Document the findings and continue with routine morning care.
D. Notify the provider and anticipate a prescription for potassium replacement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a known adverse effect of furosemide, a loop
diuretic. The nurse should notify the provider and anticipate potassium supplementation. Increasing fluid intake
could worsen electrolyte losses. Switching to a potassium-wasting diuretic would worsen the problem.
Documenting without action leaves the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 54
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A client receiving intravenous therapy through a peripheral catheter in the left hand
reports pain and a burning sensation at the insertion site. The nurse notes coolness,
blanching, and edema around the site. Which action is the priority?
A. Apply a warm compress and slow the infusion rate to keep vein open.
B. Discontinue the IV immediately and restart in a different extremity.
C. Elevate the extremity and administer a prescribed analgesic.
D. Verify the solution is isotonic and continue to monitor closely.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Coolness, blanching, edema, and pain at the IV site are classic signs of infiltration. The priority is to stop the
infusion to prevent tissue damage from the leaking fluid. Warm compresses and slowing the rate do not
address the infiltration. Continuing to monitor without discontinuing the IV places the client at risk for
compartment syndrome and tissue necrosis.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of aspiration pneumonia who is currently
NPO. During morning assessment, the nurse hears gurgling over the trachea and notes
coarse crackles in the lung bases. The client is febrile at 38.2 degrees C. Which
intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. Perform oral suctioning and position the client in high Fowler's.
B. Administer the scheduled antibiotic dose immediately.
C. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity.
D. Call the provider to request a chest x-ray.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Gurgling over the trachea indicates pooled secretions in the airway, which is the most immediate threat to the
client. Suctioning and positioning clear the airway first. Antibiotics, sputum collection, and chest x-ray are
important but do not address the immediate airway compromise. The airway always takes priority in
assessment and intervention.
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 54
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice
Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers,
100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide
Nursing Board Exam
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Patient Safety & Infection Control Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders
Pharmacological Calculations & Interventions Maternal-Newborn Assessment & Complications
Pediatric Growth, Development & Immunization Mental Health Crisis Intervention & Therapeutic Communication
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Fundamentals of Nursing | Q1-Q20 | Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100%
Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 78-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a stage 3 pressure injury on the
sacrum. The nurse notes nonblanchable erythema on the right heel. Which action should
the nurse prioritize first?
A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the sacral wound.
B. Reposition the client off the right heel using a heel suspension device.
C. Document the heel as a stage 1 pressure injury in the electronic record.
D. Initiate a consultation with the wound care nurse for the sacral ulcer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The newly noted nonblanchable erythema on the heel indicates a stage 1 pressure injury and high risk for
further skin breakdown. Offloading the heel immediately prevents progression. While dressing the sacral
wound and consulting wound care are important, the new site of injury requires immediate intervention to
protect intact skin. Documenting without action does not protect the client.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol to a client whose
blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg and heart rate is 48 beats/min. The client reports dizziness
when standing. Which is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication and place the client in Trendelenburg position.
B. Give the medication and instruct the client to remain supine for 2 hours.
C. Withhold the medication and contact the prescriber to report the findings.
D. Administer half the prescribed dose and reassess vital signs in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower blood pressure and heart rate. With a systolic BP below 100
mmHg and heart rate below 60 beats/min, administration risks symptomatic bradycardia and hypotension. The
nurse should hold the dose and notify the prescriber. Administering the full or partial dose without prescriber
approval is outside nursing scope and unsafe.
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 54
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube connected to low
intermittent suction. The client reports nausea and abdominal distention. The nurse
notes that the suction canister contains 50 mL of dark green fluid over the past 8 hours.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check the tubing for kinks and verify the suction setting.
B. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with 30 mL of sterile normal saline.
C. Remove the tube and prepare to insert a new nasogastric tube.
D. Advance the tube 5 cm and secure it to the client's gown.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Reduced drainage with nausea and distention suggests the tube may be clogged or suction is not functioning
properly. Checking for kinks and verifying the suction setting is the least invasive first step and follows the
principle of checking equipment before intervening on the client. Irrigating without first verifying suction function
is premature. Removing or advancing the tube is unnecessary without first assessing the system.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. The nurse is reviewing a client's morning laboratory results. The potassium is 3.1
mEq/L, sodium is 138 mEq/L, and chloride is 102 mEq/L. The client is taking furosemide
40 mg daily. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake to 3 liters daily.
B. Request a prescription for a potassium-wasting diuretic instead.
C. Document the findings and continue with routine morning care.
D. Notify the provider and anticipate a prescription for potassium replacement.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a known adverse effect of furosemide, a loop
diuretic. The nurse should notify the provider and anticipate potassium supplementation. Increasing fluid intake
could worsen electrolyte losses. Switching to a potassium-wasting diuretic would worsen the problem.
Documenting without action leaves the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 54
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A client receiving intravenous therapy through a peripheral catheter in the left hand
reports pain and a burning sensation at the insertion site. The nurse notes coolness,
blanching, and edema around the site. Which action is the priority?
A. Apply a warm compress and slow the infusion rate to keep vein open.
B. Discontinue the IV immediately and restart in a different extremity.
C. Elevate the extremity and administer a prescribed analgesic.
D. Verify the solution is isotonic and continue to monitor closely.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Coolness, blanching, edema, and pain at the IV site are classic signs of infiltration. The priority is to stop the
infusion to prevent tissue damage from the leaking fluid. Warm compresses and slowing the rate do not
address the infiltration. Continuing to monitor without discontinuing the IV places the client at risk for
compartment syndrome and tissue necrosis.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of aspiration pneumonia who is currently
NPO. During morning assessment, the nurse hears gurgling over the trachea and notes
coarse crackles in the lung bases. The client is febrile at 38.2 degrees C. Which
intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. Perform oral suctioning and position the client in high Fowler's.
B. Administer the scheduled antibiotic dose immediately.
C. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity.
D. Call the provider to request a chest x-ray.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Gurgling over the trachea indicates pooled secretions in the airway, which is the most immediate threat to the
client. Suctioning and positioning clear the airway first. Antibiotics, sputum collection, and chest x-ray are
important but do not address the immediate airway compromise. The airway always takes priority in
assessment and intervention.
Ati RN Vati Comprehensive Predictor Form A Practice Updated Exam 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 54
