Adult Health 1 Exam 4 - Comprehensive
Examination Questions with ANSWERs and
Rationales 2026
1. The nurse is caring for a male client that presented to the clinic with syphilis. Which of the following
findings does the nurse expect?
A. A rash to the trunk, hands and extremities
B. Neurological symptoms and dementia
C. Unilateral testicular swelling
D. Penile chancre and discharge
ANSWER: A. A rash to the trunk, hands and extremities
Rationale:
Option A (Correct): The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular rash that
typically appears on the trunk, palms, and soles. This rash is non-pruritic and may be accompanied by
flu-like symptoms, mucous membrane lesions, and generalized lymphadenopathy.
Option B (Incorrect): Neurological symptoms and dementia are characteristic of tertiary syphilis, which
occurs years after initial infection if left untreated. This is not the typical presentation for a client initially
presenting to the clinic.
Option C (Incorrect): Unilateral testicular swelling is not a typical manifestation of syphilis. This finding
would be more concerning for testicular torsion, epididymitis, or testicular cancer.
,Option D (Incorrect): Penile chancre is the characteristic primary lesion of syphilis, but it is typically a
painless, firm, round ulcer with clean base, not accompanied by discharge. Purulent discharge would
suggest other sexually transmitted infections such as gonorrhea or chlamydia.
2. The nurse is caring for a male client who has erectile dysfunction. Which of the following information
should the nurse include when teaching?
A. Do not take the medication more than 4 days per week
B. You can take this up to 6 hours prior to intercourse
C. The medication builds up in your blood stream
D. Take the medication up to 1 hour before you have intercourse
ANSWER: D. Take the medication up to 1 hour before you have intercourse
Rationale:
Option A (Incorrect): Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitors used for erectile dysfunction, such as
sildenafil (Viagra), can be taken as needed, typically with a maximum of one dose per day. There is no
restriction on "4 days per week" for these medications, though healthcare providers may recommend
maximum frequency based on individual assessment.
Option B (Incorrect): The onset of action for PDE5 inhibitors varies, but most are effective within 30-60
minutes and remain effective for 4-6 hours. Taking the medication 6 hours prior would likely be too
early for optimal effect, though tadalafil (Cialis) can be effective for up to 36 hours.
Option C (Incorrect): PDE5 inhibitors do not build up in the bloodstream with standard dosing when
taken as prescribed. They are metabolized and cleared from the body within 24 hours. The statement
about buildup is inaccurate and could cause unnecessary concern.
Option D (Correct): Sildenafil (Viagra) and vardenafil (Levitra) should be taken approximately 1 hour
before sexual activity for optimal effect. This allows adequate time for absorption and onset of action.
The medication should be taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal for best absorption.
,3. The nurse is caring for a male client who has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled to
begin brachytherapy the following week. The client is concerned because he has a daughter that is 8
months pregnant. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Close contact with the baby will be fine once it is born
B. You will need to avoid being around your daughter for at least 2 months
C. You may want to consider waiting to start treatment until after the birth
D. This treatment poses no risk to your daughter or the baby
ANSWER: D. This treatment poses no risk to your daughter or the baby
Rationale:
Option A (Incorrect): While contact with the baby may eventually be permitted, this response is
premature and does not address the immediate concern about the pregnant daughter. Brachytherapy
uses radioactive seeds implanted in the prostate, which emit radiation that can affect others,
particularly pregnant women and children.
Option B (Incorrect): For prostate brachytherapy, the radioactive seeds emit radiation primarily to the
prostate tissue. The radiation exposure to family members is minimal, and the client would not typically
need to avoid his daughter for 2 months. Standard precautions usually involve limiting close contact
(within 6 feet) with pregnant women and children for a shorter period, typically 2 months, but this is not
typically required for prostate brachytherapy as the seeds are contained within the prostate.
Option C (Incorrect): Delaying treatment for prostate cancer could allow the cancer to progress and is
generally not recommended unless absolutely necessary. While pregnancy concerns are valid,
brachytherapy poses minimal risk to others, and the client can safely undergo treatment with
appropriate precautions.
Option D (Correct): Prostate brachytherapy uses low-dose radioactive seeds implanted directly into the
prostate gland. The radiation is confined primarily to the prostate and surrounding tissues. The exposure
to family members, including pregnant women, is minimal and within safe limits. The client can be
reassured that the treatment poses no significant risk to his pregnant daughter or the unborn baby
when appropriate precautions are followed.
, 4. The nurse is teaching a group of male adolescents about Testicular Self-Examination (TSE). Which of
the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Perform TSE every other month
B. Examine the testicles after a bath or shower
C. Palpate each testicle while laying down in bed
D. Use a flashlight to illuminate each testicle
ANSWER: B. Examine the testicles after a bath or shower
Rationale:
Option A (Incorrect): Testicular self-examination should be performed monthly, not every other month.
Regular monthly examinations increase the likelihood of detecting changes early. The American Cancer
Society recommends monthly TSE for men aged 15-35.
Option B (Correct): The testicles should be examined after a warm bath or shower because the warmth
relaxes the scrotal skin, making the testicles hang lower and easier to palpate. The relaxed scrotal tissue
allows for more thorough examination and detection of any abnormalities.
Option C (Incorrect): Testicular self-examination should be performed while standing, not lying down.
Standing allows the testicles to hang freely, making them easier to examine. Gravity helps the testicles
descend, allowing for better palpation and visualization.
Option D (Incorrect): Using a flashlight to illuminate the testicles is not a standard component of
testicular self-examination. Transillumination (shining light through the scrotum) is a technique used by
healthcare providers to differentiate between solid masses and fluid-filled cysts, but it is not
recommended as part of routine self-examination.
5. A client is admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding would the nurse
expect to observe?
Examination Questions with ANSWERs and
Rationales 2026
1. The nurse is caring for a male client that presented to the clinic with syphilis. Which of the following
findings does the nurse expect?
A. A rash to the trunk, hands and extremities
B. Neurological symptoms and dementia
C. Unilateral testicular swelling
D. Penile chancre and discharge
ANSWER: A. A rash to the trunk, hands and extremities
Rationale:
Option A (Correct): The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular rash that
typically appears on the trunk, palms, and soles. This rash is non-pruritic and may be accompanied by
flu-like symptoms, mucous membrane lesions, and generalized lymphadenopathy.
Option B (Incorrect): Neurological symptoms and dementia are characteristic of tertiary syphilis, which
occurs years after initial infection if left untreated. This is not the typical presentation for a client initially
presenting to the clinic.
Option C (Incorrect): Unilateral testicular swelling is not a typical manifestation of syphilis. This finding
would be more concerning for testicular torsion, epididymitis, or testicular cancer.
,Option D (Incorrect): Penile chancre is the characteristic primary lesion of syphilis, but it is typically a
painless, firm, round ulcer with clean base, not accompanied by discharge. Purulent discharge would
suggest other sexually transmitted infections such as gonorrhea or chlamydia.
2. The nurse is caring for a male client who has erectile dysfunction. Which of the following information
should the nurse include when teaching?
A. Do not take the medication more than 4 days per week
B. You can take this up to 6 hours prior to intercourse
C. The medication builds up in your blood stream
D. Take the medication up to 1 hour before you have intercourse
ANSWER: D. Take the medication up to 1 hour before you have intercourse
Rationale:
Option A (Incorrect): Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitors used for erectile dysfunction, such as
sildenafil (Viagra), can be taken as needed, typically with a maximum of one dose per day. There is no
restriction on "4 days per week" for these medications, though healthcare providers may recommend
maximum frequency based on individual assessment.
Option B (Incorrect): The onset of action for PDE5 inhibitors varies, but most are effective within 30-60
minutes and remain effective for 4-6 hours. Taking the medication 6 hours prior would likely be too
early for optimal effect, though tadalafil (Cialis) can be effective for up to 36 hours.
Option C (Incorrect): PDE5 inhibitors do not build up in the bloodstream with standard dosing when
taken as prescribed. They are metabolized and cleared from the body within 24 hours. The statement
about buildup is inaccurate and could cause unnecessary concern.
Option D (Correct): Sildenafil (Viagra) and vardenafil (Levitra) should be taken approximately 1 hour
before sexual activity for optimal effect. This allows adequate time for absorption and onset of action.
The medication should be taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal for best absorption.
,3. The nurse is caring for a male client who has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled to
begin brachytherapy the following week. The client is concerned because he has a daughter that is 8
months pregnant. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Close contact with the baby will be fine once it is born
B. You will need to avoid being around your daughter for at least 2 months
C. You may want to consider waiting to start treatment until after the birth
D. This treatment poses no risk to your daughter or the baby
ANSWER: D. This treatment poses no risk to your daughter or the baby
Rationale:
Option A (Incorrect): While contact with the baby may eventually be permitted, this response is
premature and does not address the immediate concern about the pregnant daughter. Brachytherapy
uses radioactive seeds implanted in the prostate, which emit radiation that can affect others,
particularly pregnant women and children.
Option B (Incorrect): For prostate brachytherapy, the radioactive seeds emit radiation primarily to the
prostate tissue. The radiation exposure to family members is minimal, and the client would not typically
need to avoid his daughter for 2 months. Standard precautions usually involve limiting close contact
(within 6 feet) with pregnant women and children for a shorter period, typically 2 months, but this is not
typically required for prostate brachytherapy as the seeds are contained within the prostate.
Option C (Incorrect): Delaying treatment for prostate cancer could allow the cancer to progress and is
generally not recommended unless absolutely necessary. While pregnancy concerns are valid,
brachytherapy poses minimal risk to others, and the client can safely undergo treatment with
appropriate precautions.
Option D (Correct): Prostate brachytherapy uses low-dose radioactive seeds implanted directly into the
prostate gland. The radiation is confined primarily to the prostate and surrounding tissues. The exposure
to family members, including pregnant women, is minimal and within safe limits. The client can be
reassured that the treatment poses no significant risk to his pregnant daughter or the unborn baby
when appropriate precautions are followed.
, 4. The nurse is teaching a group of male adolescents about Testicular Self-Examination (TSE). Which of
the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Perform TSE every other month
B. Examine the testicles after a bath or shower
C. Palpate each testicle while laying down in bed
D. Use a flashlight to illuminate each testicle
ANSWER: B. Examine the testicles after a bath or shower
Rationale:
Option A (Incorrect): Testicular self-examination should be performed monthly, not every other month.
Regular monthly examinations increase the likelihood of detecting changes early. The American Cancer
Society recommends monthly TSE for men aged 15-35.
Option B (Correct): The testicles should be examined after a warm bath or shower because the warmth
relaxes the scrotal skin, making the testicles hang lower and easier to palpate. The relaxed scrotal tissue
allows for more thorough examination and detection of any abnormalities.
Option C (Incorrect): Testicular self-examination should be performed while standing, not lying down.
Standing allows the testicles to hang freely, making them easier to examine. Gravity helps the testicles
descend, allowing for better palpation and visualization.
Option D (Incorrect): Using a flashlight to illuminate the testicles is not a standard component of
testicular self-examination. Transillumination (shining light through the scrotum) is a technique used by
healthcare providers to differentiate between solid masses and fluid-filled cysts, but it is not
recommended as part of routine self-examination.
5. A client is admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding would the nurse
expect to observe?
