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WGU D446 ADULT HEALTH 2 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL EXAM 2026 - COMPLETE 180 QUESTIONS Questions with Answers and Rationales| GAURANTEED PASS WITH 170+ TEST BANK QUESTIONS 2026 CARRICULUM VERRIFIED| TEST INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD

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WGU D446 ADULT HEALTH 2 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL EXAM 2026 - COMPLETE 180 QUESTIONS Questions with Answers and Rationales| GAURANTEED PASS WITH 170+ TEST BANK QUESTIONS 2026 CARRICULUM VERRIFIED| TEST INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD

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WGU D446 ADULT HEALTH 2 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT

FINAL EXAM 2026 - COMPLETE 180 QUESTIONS Questions with

Answers and Rationales| GAURANTEED PASS WITH 170+ TEST BANK

QUESTIONS 2026 CARRICULUM VERRIFIED| TEST INSTANT PDF

DOWNLOAD

Question 1:

A patient presents with pallor, decreased mean arterial pressure (MAP),
tachycardia, decreased urinary output, increased respiratory rate, hypotension,
decreased pulse pressure, and cold clammy skin. What is this patient most likely
experiencing?

A) Myocardial infarction

B) Hemorrhage

C) Hypertensive crisis

D) Heart failure exacerbation

Correct Answer: B) Hemorrhage

Rationale: These are classic signs and symptoms of hemorrhage, indicating
hypovolemic shock. The body compensates with tachycardia and increased
respiratory rate, while decreased perfusion leads to pallor, cool skin, and
decreased urine output. The decreased pulse pressure and hypotension are
direct consequences of reduced circulating blood volume .

________________________________________

Question 2:

Which medication class is contraindicated in patients with acute heart failure?

A) ACE inhibitors

,2|Page


B) Beta blockers

C) Diuretics

D) Calcium channel blockers

Correct Answer: B) Beta blockers

Rationale: Beta blockers reduce cardiac output and can worsen acute heart
failure. While they are used in chronic, stable HF, they are contraindicated
during acute decompensation. ACE inhibitors and diuretics are standard
treatments for acute HF, and calcium channel blockers may be used selectively .

________________________________________

Question 3:

A patient with right-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit which set of symptoms?

A) Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles

B) Jugular vein distention, peripheral edema, ascites

C) Chest pain, diaphoresis, nausea

D) Palpitations, syncope, lightheadedness

Correct Answer: B) Jugular vein distention, peripheral edema, ascites

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure results from fluid backing up into the venous
system. Symptoms include peripheral edema, jugular venous distention (JVD),
ascites, and weight gain. Option A describes left-sided heart failure symptoms,
while C and D are associated with other cardiac conditions .

________________________________________

Question 4:

A patient with left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit which set of symptoms?

A) Jugular vein distention, peripheral edema, ascites

,3|Page


B) Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles, frothy sputum

C) Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

D) Nausea, vomiting, anorexia

Correct Answer: B) Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles, frothy sputum

Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes fluid to back up into the pulmonary
circulation. Symptoms include dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal
dyspnea, crackles, and possibly frothy, blood-tinged sputum. Option A
describes right-sided HF, and C and D are not specific to left-sided failure .

________________________________________

Question 5:

What is the priority intervention for a patient with an acute hemolytic transfusion
reaction?

A) Administer antihistamines

B) Slow the infusion and monitor vital signs

C) Discontinue the blood transfusion immediately and flush the IV line with saline

D) Notify the blood bank after the transfusion is complete

Correct Answer: C) Discontinue the blood transfusion immediately and flush
the IV line with saline

Rationale: If an AHTR is suspected, the priority is to stop the transfusion
immediately to prevent further reaction, maintain IV access with saline, and then
notify the healthcare provider and blood bank. The signs of AHTR include fever,
chills, back pain, and hypotension .

________________________________________

Question 6:

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A patient with chronic venous insufficiency would most likely exhibit which
assessment finding?

A) Bilateral crackles in the lungs

B) Pallor and coolness of the lower extremities

C) Brownish discoloration and stasis ulcers around the ankles

D) Diminished peripheral pulses and intermittent claudication

Correct Answer: C) Brownish discoloration and stasis ulcers around the
ankles

Rationale: Chronic venous insufficiency leads to pooling of blood in the lower
extremities, causing hemosiderin deposits (brownish discoloration), stasis
ulcers, and edema. Option D describes peripheral artery disease. Option B may
be seen in PAD, and A is associated with heart failure .

________________________________________

Question 7:

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is best described as:

A) A surgical bypass of blocked coronary arteries

B) A non-surgical procedure to treat coronary artery blockage using a catheter

C) A medication regimen to dissolve clots

D) A diagnostic test to visualize heart chambers

Correct Answer: B) A non-surgical procedure to treat coronary artery
blockage using a catheter

Rationale: PCI, such as angioplasty and stenting, is a non-surgical, catheter-
based procedure to open blocked coronary arteries. CABG is surgical,
thrombolytics are medications, and echocardiography/angiography are
diagnostic .

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