NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment Exam 1 Prep
Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NURS 5220 Exam 1 Advanced Health Assessment 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment covers
Modules 2, Chapters 9-16, featuring 250 verified questions with rationales. Designed for University of
Texas at Arlington (UTA) students, it provides a complete A+ guide to mastering advanced health
assessment skills. Each question includes correct answers and detailed explanations to reinforce
learning and clinical reasoning.
Key Features:
250 verified questions with rationales
Covers Modules 2, Chapters 9-16
Focus on advanced health assessment techniques
Includes head-to-toe assessment, special populations, and documentation
Aligned with UTA NURS 5220 curriculum and 2026/2027 guidelines
Graded A+ standard for exam success
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 academic year guidelines
- Revised rationales for clarity and evidence-based practice
- Added new questions on cultural and lifespan considerations
- Enhanced distractor explanations to improve critical thinking
- Incorporated latest assessment techniques and documentation standards
Abstract:
This exam preparation document for NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment at the University of Texas at
Arlington (UTA) is a meticulously curated collection of 250 verified questions and answers with rationales,
covering Modules 2, Chapters 9-16. The content is designed to support students in mastering advanced health
assessment skills, including comprehensive physical examination techniques, health history taking, and clinical
reasoning across diverse populations. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale that explains the
correct answer and addresses common misconceptions, ensuring a deep understanding of the material. The
document is aligned with the 2026/2027 academic year guidelines and reflects the latest evidence-based practices
in advanced health assessment. By utilizing this resource, students can confidently prepare for Exam 1 and achieve
a graded A+ performance, reinforcing their ability to apply assessment skills in clinical settings.
Keywords:
Advanced Health Assessment, NURS 5220, UTA, Exam 1, 250 Questions, Verified Answers, Rationales, Chapters
9-16
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with the correct answer clearly indicated. Following each
question, a detailed rationale explains why the correct answer is right and why the distractors are incorrect,
promoting critical thinking and clinical reasoning. This format ensures comprehensive understanding and retention
of key concepts.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified for accuracy and relevance to NURS 5220 curriculum
Rationales updated to reflect 2026/2027 evidence-based practice guidelines
Page 1
, Content aligned with UTA's advanced health assessment course objectives
Distractor explanations designed to enhance clinical reasoning skills
Document formatted for easy study and self-assessment
Graded A+ standard to ensure high-quality exam preparation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health History and Interviewing 1-30 Comprehensive health history, 12%
communication techniques, cultural
considerations, special populations
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and 31-70 Eye examination, otoscopic exam, nasal 16%
Throat (HEENT) assessment, oral cavity, thyroid and lymph
nodes
Thorax and Lungs 71-110 Inspection, palpation, percussion, 16%
auscultation, breath sounds, respiratory
patterns
Cardiovascular System 111-150 Heart sounds, jugular venous pressure, 16%
peripheral vascular assessment, blood
pressure measurement
Abdomen 151-190 Inspection, auscultation, percussion, 16%
palpation, liver and spleen assessment,
abdominal reflexes
Musculoskeletal and 191-230 Joint examination, muscle strength, deep 16%
Neurological Systems tendon reflexes, cranial nerves, sensory and
motor function
Skin, Hair, and Nails; 231-250 Skin lesions, hair and nail assessment, 8%
Documentation documentation of findings, SOAP notes
Page 2
,Q1. A patient presents with a blood pressure reading of 148/92 mm Hg in the right arm while seated. To
confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, which of the following steps is most critical according to current JNC
8/ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Repeat the measurement in the same arm after 5 minutes of rest.
B. Measure blood pressure in both arms and use the higher reading.
C. Obtain an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) reading over 24 hours.
D. Calculate the ankle-brachial index to rule out peripheral artery disease.
Correct Answer: C. Obtain an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) reading over 24 hours.
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend confirming elevated office readings with out-of-office monitoring
(ABPM or home monitoring) before diagnosing hypertension, as white-coat hypertension is common. Option A is
insufficient; guidelines require multiple readings on separate occasions. Option B is for screening, not
confirmation. Option D is for PAD assessment, not hypertension diagnosis.
Why Wrong:
A - Repeating in the same arm after rest does not address white-coat effect; guidelines require multiple visits
or out-of-office monitoring.
B - Measuring both arms identifies differences but does not confirm hypertension; it is a screening step.
D - ABI is used to assess for peripheral artery disease, not to confirm hypertension.
Reference: Whelton, P.K. et al. (2018). 2017 ACC/AHA Guideline for the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and
Management of High Blood Pressure in Adults. Hypertension, 71(6), e13-e115.
Q2. During a cardiac assessment, you auscultate a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur at
the left sternal border, best heard with the patient leaning forward and breath held in expiration. Which
valvular abnormality is most consistent with these findings?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Pulmonic stenosis
D. Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: B. Aortic regurgitation
Rationale: Aortic regurgitation produces a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard best at the
left sternal border (Erb's point) with the patient leaning forward and breath held in expiration. Mitral stenosis
yields a low-pitched diastolic rumble with opening snap. Pulmonic stenosis is systolic. Mitral regurgitation is a
holosystolic murmur.
Why Wrong:
A - Mitral stenosis produces a low-pitched diastolic rumble with an opening snap, not a high-pitched blowing
murmur.
C - Pulmonic stenosis is a systolic ejection murmur, not diastolic.
D - Mitral regurgitation is a holosystolic murmur, not diastolic.
Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2021). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch. 10.
Q3. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with dyspnea and
decreased breath sounds on the right. Percussion reveals hyperresonance on the right. Which of the following
is the most likely cause?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pneumothorax
C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: B. Pneumothorax
Rationale: Hyperresonance on percussion indicates increased air in the pleural space, as in pneumothorax.
Pleural effusion produces dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia typically yields dullness and bronchial breath
Page 3
, sounds. Atelectasis also produces dullness and decreased breath sounds.
Why Wrong:
A - Pleural effusion produces dullness, not hyperresonance.
C - Lobar pneumonia produces dullness and bronchial breath sounds.
D - Atelectasis produces dullness and decreased breath sounds.
Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2021). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch. 14.
Q4. A patient reports intermittent epigastric pain that worsens 2-3 hours after meals and is relieved by
eating. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B. Duodenal ulcer
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after meals (when stomach empties acid into duodenum)
and is relieved by food (which buffers acid). Gastric ulcer pain is worsened by food. GERD pain is postprandial
and worse when lying down. Pancreatitis pain is constant, severe, and radiates to the back.
Why Wrong:
A - Gastric ulcer pain is worsened by food, not relieved.
C - GERD pain is typically retrosternal burning, not epigastric, and is worsened by recumbency.
D - Pancreatitis pain is constant, severe, and radiates to the back, not relieved by eating.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 62.
Q5. A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes has a monofilament test that is insensate at the great toe.
Which of the following best describes the neuropathic process underlying this finding?
A. Demyelination of large myelinated fibers leading to loss of vibratory sense
B. Axonal degeneration of small unmyelinated fibers leading to loss of pain and temperature
C. Ischemic injury to the dorsal root ganglion
D. Compression of the peroneal nerve at the fibular head
Correct Answer: B. Axonal degeneration of small unmyelinated fibers leading to loss of pain and
temperature
Rationale: Diabetic peripheral neuropathy typically involves length-dependent axonal degeneration of small
unmyelinated fibers first, causing loss of pain, temperature, and light touch (monofilament). Large fiber loss
(vibration, proprioception) occurs later. Option A describes large fiber loss. Option C is not typical. Option D is a
focal mononeuropathy.
Why Wrong:
A - Monofilament tests small fiber function; large fiber loss affects vibration and proprioception.
C - Ischemic injury to dorsal root ganglion is not the primary mechanism in diabetic neuropathy.
D - Peroneal nerve compression causes foot drop, not symmetric distal sensory loss.
Reference: American Diabetes Association. (2023). Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes-2023. Diabetes Care,
46(Suppl 1), S58-S66.
Q6. A patient presents with a palpable, non-blanching, purpuric rash on the lower extremities and reports
joint pain and abdominal pain. Urinalysis shows hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Meningococcemia
B. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (IgA vasculitis)
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Page 4
Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NURS 5220 Exam 1 Advanced Health Assessment 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment covers
Modules 2, Chapters 9-16, featuring 250 verified questions with rationales. Designed for University of
Texas at Arlington (UTA) students, it provides a complete A+ guide to mastering advanced health
assessment skills. Each question includes correct answers and detailed explanations to reinforce
learning and clinical reasoning.
Key Features:
250 verified questions with rationales
Covers Modules 2, Chapters 9-16
Focus on advanced health assessment techniques
Includes head-to-toe assessment, special populations, and documentation
Aligned with UTA NURS 5220 curriculum and 2026/2027 guidelines
Graded A+ standard for exam success
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 academic year guidelines
- Revised rationales for clarity and evidence-based practice
- Added new questions on cultural and lifespan considerations
- Enhanced distractor explanations to improve critical thinking
- Incorporated latest assessment techniques and documentation standards
Abstract:
This exam preparation document for NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment at the University of Texas at
Arlington (UTA) is a meticulously curated collection of 250 verified questions and answers with rationales,
covering Modules 2, Chapters 9-16. The content is designed to support students in mastering advanced health
assessment skills, including comprehensive physical examination techniques, health history taking, and clinical
reasoning across diverse populations. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale that explains the
correct answer and addresses common misconceptions, ensuring a deep understanding of the material. The
document is aligned with the 2026/2027 academic year guidelines and reflects the latest evidence-based practices
in advanced health assessment. By utilizing this resource, students can confidently prepare for Exam 1 and achieve
a graded A+ performance, reinforcing their ability to apply assessment skills in clinical settings.
Keywords:
Advanced Health Assessment, NURS 5220, UTA, Exam 1, 250 Questions, Verified Answers, Rationales, Chapters
9-16
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with the correct answer clearly indicated. Following each
question, a detailed rationale explains why the correct answer is right and why the distractors are incorrect,
promoting critical thinking and clinical reasoning. This format ensures comprehensive understanding and retention
of key concepts.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified for accuracy and relevance to NURS 5220 curriculum
Rationales updated to reflect 2026/2027 evidence-based practice guidelines
Page 1
, Content aligned with UTA's advanced health assessment course objectives
Distractor explanations designed to enhance clinical reasoning skills
Document formatted for easy study and self-assessment
Graded A+ standard to ensure high-quality exam preparation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health History and Interviewing 1-30 Comprehensive health history, 12%
communication techniques, cultural
considerations, special populations
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and 31-70 Eye examination, otoscopic exam, nasal 16%
Throat (HEENT) assessment, oral cavity, thyroid and lymph
nodes
Thorax and Lungs 71-110 Inspection, palpation, percussion, 16%
auscultation, breath sounds, respiratory
patterns
Cardiovascular System 111-150 Heart sounds, jugular venous pressure, 16%
peripheral vascular assessment, blood
pressure measurement
Abdomen 151-190 Inspection, auscultation, percussion, 16%
palpation, liver and spleen assessment,
abdominal reflexes
Musculoskeletal and 191-230 Joint examination, muscle strength, deep 16%
Neurological Systems tendon reflexes, cranial nerves, sensory and
motor function
Skin, Hair, and Nails; 231-250 Skin lesions, hair and nail assessment, 8%
Documentation documentation of findings, SOAP notes
Page 2
,Q1. A patient presents with a blood pressure reading of 148/92 mm Hg in the right arm while seated. To
confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, which of the following steps is most critical according to current JNC
8/ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Repeat the measurement in the same arm after 5 minutes of rest.
B. Measure blood pressure in both arms and use the higher reading.
C. Obtain an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) reading over 24 hours.
D. Calculate the ankle-brachial index to rule out peripheral artery disease.
Correct Answer: C. Obtain an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) reading over 24 hours.
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend confirming elevated office readings with out-of-office monitoring
(ABPM or home monitoring) before diagnosing hypertension, as white-coat hypertension is common. Option A is
insufficient; guidelines require multiple readings on separate occasions. Option B is for screening, not
confirmation. Option D is for PAD assessment, not hypertension diagnosis.
Why Wrong:
A - Repeating in the same arm after rest does not address white-coat effect; guidelines require multiple visits
or out-of-office monitoring.
B - Measuring both arms identifies differences but does not confirm hypertension; it is a screening step.
D - ABI is used to assess for peripheral artery disease, not to confirm hypertension.
Reference: Whelton, P.K. et al. (2018). 2017 ACC/AHA Guideline for the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and
Management of High Blood Pressure in Adults. Hypertension, 71(6), e13-e115.
Q2. During a cardiac assessment, you auscultate a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur at
the left sternal border, best heard with the patient leaning forward and breath held in expiration. Which
valvular abnormality is most consistent with these findings?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Pulmonic stenosis
D. Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: B. Aortic regurgitation
Rationale: Aortic regurgitation produces a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard best at the
left sternal border (Erb's point) with the patient leaning forward and breath held in expiration. Mitral stenosis
yields a low-pitched diastolic rumble with opening snap. Pulmonic stenosis is systolic. Mitral regurgitation is a
holosystolic murmur.
Why Wrong:
A - Mitral stenosis produces a low-pitched diastolic rumble with an opening snap, not a high-pitched blowing
murmur.
C - Pulmonic stenosis is a systolic ejection murmur, not diastolic.
D - Mitral regurgitation is a holosystolic murmur, not diastolic.
Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2021). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch. 10.
Q3. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with dyspnea and
decreased breath sounds on the right. Percussion reveals hyperresonance on the right. Which of the following
is the most likely cause?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pneumothorax
C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: B. Pneumothorax
Rationale: Hyperresonance on percussion indicates increased air in the pleural space, as in pneumothorax.
Pleural effusion produces dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia typically yields dullness and bronchial breath
Page 3
, sounds. Atelectasis also produces dullness and decreased breath sounds.
Why Wrong:
A - Pleural effusion produces dullness, not hyperresonance.
C - Lobar pneumonia produces dullness and bronchial breath sounds.
D - Atelectasis produces dullness and decreased breath sounds.
Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2021). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch. 14.
Q4. A patient reports intermittent epigastric pain that worsens 2-3 hours after meals and is relieved by
eating. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B. Duodenal ulcer
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after meals (when stomach empties acid into duodenum)
and is relieved by food (which buffers acid). Gastric ulcer pain is worsened by food. GERD pain is postprandial
and worse when lying down. Pancreatitis pain is constant, severe, and radiates to the back.
Why Wrong:
A - Gastric ulcer pain is worsened by food, not relieved.
C - GERD pain is typically retrosternal burning, not epigastric, and is worsened by recumbency.
D - Pancreatitis pain is constant, severe, and radiates to the back, not relieved by eating.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 62.
Q5. A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes has a monofilament test that is insensate at the great toe.
Which of the following best describes the neuropathic process underlying this finding?
A. Demyelination of large myelinated fibers leading to loss of vibratory sense
B. Axonal degeneration of small unmyelinated fibers leading to loss of pain and temperature
C. Ischemic injury to the dorsal root ganglion
D. Compression of the peroneal nerve at the fibular head
Correct Answer: B. Axonal degeneration of small unmyelinated fibers leading to loss of pain and
temperature
Rationale: Diabetic peripheral neuropathy typically involves length-dependent axonal degeneration of small
unmyelinated fibers first, causing loss of pain, temperature, and light touch (monofilament). Large fiber loss
(vibration, proprioception) occurs later. Option A describes large fiber loss. Option C is not typical. Option D is a
focal mononeuropathy.
Why Wrong:
A - Monofilament tests small fiber function; large fiber loss affects vibration and proprioception.
C - Ischemic injury to dorsal root ganglion is not the primary mechanism in diabetic neuropathy.
D - Peroneal nerve compression causes foot drop, not symmetric distal sensory loss.
Reference: American Diabetes Association. (2023). Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes-2023. Diabetes Care,
46(Suppl 1), S58-S66.
Q6. A patient presents with a palpable, non-blanching, purpuric rash on the lower extremities and reports
joint pain and abdominal pain. Urinalysis shows hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Meningococcemia
B. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (IgA vasculitis)
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Page 4
