100% NR566 Week 8 Finals Exam Review
Due October 25th 2026 Complete
Questions 1-100 Actual Exam Examplify
Online Proctored Exam NR566 Advanced
Pharmacology For Care Of The Family
Questions and Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
Q1. A 68-year-old man with primary open-angle glaucoma is started on
latanoprost ophthalmic drops. Which finding should the prescriber include as
a common, non-dangerous long-term effect of this medication?
• A) Permanent clouding of the cornea
• B) Heightened brown pigmentation of the iris
• C) Progressive constriction of the visual field
• D) Accelerated formation of cataracts
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Prostaglandin analogs (latanoprost, travoprost, bimatoprost)
lower intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow. A well-known
cosmetic effect is gradual, irreversible darkening of the iris (increased brown
pigmentation) and periocular skin. This change is harmless but should be
explained to the patient prior to therapy.
Q2. A patient with COPD and primary open-angle glaucoma needs an
ophthalmic β-blocker. Which agent is the safest choice?
• A) Timolol eye drops
, • B) Levobunolol eye drops
• C) Betaxolol eye drops
• D) Carteolol eye drops
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: C
• Rationale: Betaxolol is a cardioselective β1-blocker. In patients with
reactive airway disease (asthma, COPD), it is preferred over non-selective β-
blockers (timolol, levobunolol, carteolol) because it carries a much lower
risk of bronchospasm.
Q3. Which medication is indicated for the treatment of both Influenza A and
Influenza B?
• A) Amoxicillin
• B) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
• C) Acyclovir
• D) Cromolyn
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor active against both
influenza A and B. Amoxicillin treats bacteria, acyclovir treats herpes
viruses, and cromolyn is a mast-cell stabilizer for allergies.
Q4. In a child with persistent acute otitis media (AOM) that failed initial
therapy (after 48–72 hours of observation or first-line antibiotics), what
should the NP prescribe?
• A) A higher dose of amoxicillin
• B) Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
• C) Topical neomycin
• D) Watchful waiting for another 48 hours
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: For persistent AOM, first-line treatment is amoxicillin (80–90
mg/kg/day). If that fails, the guideline-recommended next step is
, amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) to cover β-lactamase-producing
organisms (e.g., H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis). Topical neomycin is for
otitis externa, not AOM.
Q5. A patient using a high-potency topical glucocorticoid on the forearms for
chronic eczema asks about long-term risks. Which adverse effect is most
important to discuss?
• A) Permanent depigmentation of the entire arm
• B) Skin thinning and development of striae
• C) Increased systemic blood pressure
• D) Irreversible joint damage
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Prolonged use of potent topical corticosteroids can cause local
skin atrophy (thinning), telangiectasia, striae, and easy bruising due to
suppression of collagen synthesis and local immune function.
Q6. A 23-year-old woman is prescribed a topical retinoid for comedonal acne.
What is the most appropriate counseling point?
• A) Apply it generously in the morning to freshly washed skin
• B) Expect no redness or peeling if used correctly
• C) Use sunscreen daily because of photosensitivity
• D) Use it only as a spot treatment on individual pimples
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: C
• Rationale: Topical retinoids (tretinoin, adapalene, tazarotene) increase
photosensitivity. Patients must use sunscreen and avoid prolonged sun
exposure. They are applied at night and often cause an initial "retinoid
reaction" (redness, dryness, peeling). They should be applied to the whole
affected area, not as spot treatment.
Q7. A teenager with mild inflammatory acne is starting benzoyl peroxide gel.
Which explanation best describes how this agent works?
, • A) It suppresses sebum production from sebaceous glands
• B) It kills Cutibacterium acnes and promotes shedding of the outer epidermis
• C) It acts as a systemic antibiotic after absorption
• D) It directly blocks androgen receptors in the skin
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is both an antibacterial and a keratolytic,
releasing active oxygen to suppress P. acnes while promoting desquamation
of the stratum corneum.
Q8. A patient with severe cystic acne is starting isotretinoin. Which of the
following is a strict contraindication?
• A) History of asthma
• B) Pregnancy
• C) Peanut allergy
• D) Use of topical moisturizers
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Isotretinoin is a potent teratogen. It is absolutely contraindicated
in pregnancy (pregnancy category X) and requires enrollment in the
iPLEDGE program.
Q9. What is the mechanism of action for intranasal decongestants such as
oxymetazoline?
• A) Binding to H1 receptors to block histamine
• B) Stabilizing mast cells to prevent histamine release
• C) Stimulating α-adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction
• D) Blocking leukotriene receptors to reduce inflammation
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: C
• Rationale: Intranasal decongestants are α-adrenergic agonists that cause
vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels → reduced mucosal edema. They do
not block histamine or stabilize mast cells.
Due October 25th 2026 Complete
Questions 1-100 Actual Exam Examplify
Online Proctored Exam NR566 Advanced
Pharmacology For Care Of The Family
Questions and Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
Q1. A 68-year-old man with primary open-angle glaucoma is started on
latanoprost ophthalmic drops. Which finding should the prescriber include as
a common, non-dangerous long-term effect of this medication?
• A) Permanent clouding of the cornea
• B) Heightened brown pigmentation of the iris
• C) Progressive constriction of the visual field
• D) Accelerated formation of cataracts
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Prostaglandin analogs (latanoprost, travoprost, bimatoprost)
lower intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow. A well-known
cosmetic effect is gradual, irreversible darkening of the iris (increased brown
pigmentation) and periocular skin. This change is harmless but should be
explained to the patient prior to therapy.
Q2. A patient with COPD and primary open-angle glaucoma needs an
ophthalmic β-blocker. Which agent is the safest choice?
• A) Timolol eye drops
, • B) Levobunolol eye drops
• C) Betaxolol eye drops
• D) Carteolol eye drops
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: C
• Rationale: Betaxolol is a cardioselective β1-blocker. In patients with
reactive airway disease (asthma, COPD), it is preferred over non-selective β-
blockers (timolol, levobunolol, carteolol) because it carries a much lower
risk of bronchospasm.
Q3. Which medication is indicated for the treatment of both Influenza A and
Influenza B?
• A) Amoxicillin
• B) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
• C) Acyclovir
• D) Cromolyn
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor active against both
influenza A and B. Amoxicillin treats bacteria, acyclovir treats herpes
viruses, and cromolyn is a mast-cell stabilizer for allergies.
Q4. In a child with persistent acute otitis media (AOM) that failed initial
therapy (after 48–72 hours of observation or first-line antibiotics), what
should the NP prescribe?
• A) A higher dose of amoxicillin
• B) Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
• C) Topical neomycin
• D) Watchful waiting for another 48 hours
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: For persistent AOM, first-line treatment is amoxicillin (80–90
mg/kg/day). If that fails, the guideline-recommended next step is
, amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) to cover β-lactamase-producing
organisms (e.g., H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis). Topical neomycin is for
otitis externa, not AOM.
Q5. A patient using a high-potency topical glucocorticoid on the forearms for
chronic eczema asks about long-term risks. Which adverse effect is most
important to discuss?
• A) Permanent depigmentation of the entire arm
• B) Skin thinning and development of striae
• C) Increased systemic blood pressure
• D) Irreversible joint damage
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Prolonged use of potent topical corticosteroids can cause local
skin atrophy (thinning), telangiectasia, striae, and easy bruising due to
suppression of collagen synthesis and local immune function.
Q6. A 23-year-old woman is prescribed a topical retinoid for comedonal acne.
What is the most appropriate counseling point?
• A) Apply it generously in the morning to freshly washed skin
• B) Expect no redness or peeling if used correctly
• C) Use sunscreen daily because of photosensitivity
• D) Use it only as a spot treatment on individual pimples
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: C
• Rationale: Topical retinoids (tretinoin, adapalene, tazarotene) increase
photosensitivity. Patients must use sunscreen and avoid prolonged sun
exposure. They are applied at night and often cause an initial "retinoid
reaction" (redness, dryness, peeling). They should be applied to the whole
affected area, not as spot treatment.
Q7. A teenager with mild inflammatory acne is starting benzoyl peroxide gel.
Which explanation best describes how this agent works?
, • A) It suppresses sebum production from sebaceous glands
• B) It kills Cutibacterium acnes and promotes shedding of the outer epidermis
• C) It acts as a systemic antibiotic after absorption
• D) It directly blocks androgen receptors in the skin
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Benzoyl peroxide is both an antibacterial and a keratolytic,
releasing active oxygen to suppress P. acnes while promoting desquamation
of the stratum corneum.
Q8. A patient with severe cystic acne is starting isotretinoin. Which of the
following is a strict contraindication?
• A) History of asthma
• B) Pregnancy
• C) Peanut allergy
• D) Use of topical moisturizers
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: B
• Rationale: Isotretinoin is a potent teratogen. It is absolutely contraindicated
in pregnancy (pregnancy category X) and requires enrollment in the
iPLEDGE program.
Q9. What is the mechanism of action for intranasal decongestants such as
oxymetazoline?
• A) Binding to H1 receptors to block histamine
• B) Stabilizing mast cells to prevent histamine release
• C) Stimulating α-adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction
• D) Blocking leukotriene receptors to reduce inflammation
• Correct ,,,,,,,,answer,,,,,,: C
• Rationale: Intranasal decongestants are α-adrenergic agonists that cause
vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels → reduced mucosal edema. They do
not block histamine or stabilize mast cells.
