NUR2513: Maternal-Child Nursing Final Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
SECTION 1: Reproductive Health, Genetics, & Prenatal Care (Q1-Q20)
Q1: A 24-year-old female asks when she is most fertile during her menstrual cycle.
Which response by the nurse is correct?
A. During menstruation
B. Approximately 14 days before the next menstrual period, around the time of ovulation
[CORRECT]
C. During the luteal phase, after ovulation has occurred
D. On the first day of the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the onset of the next
menstrual period, triggered by the LH surge. The fertile window includes the 5 days
before ovulation and the day of ovulation itself due to sperm survival in the reproductive
tract. A is incorrect because menstruation is the shedding of the endometrium, not the
fertile period. C is incorrect because the luteal phase occurs after ovulation when the
egg is no longer viable. D is incorrect because day 1 is the beginning of menstruation,
not the fertile period. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
,Q2: A pregnant patient asks about the critical period of embryonic development when
teratogens are most dangerous. Which response is correct?
A. The third trimester, when organs are maturing
B. The embryonic period, weeks 3-8, when organogenesis occurs [CORRECT]
C. The fetal period, weeks 9-40
D. The preconception period, before fertilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 3-8) is the critical period of organogenesis
when the major organ systems form. Teratogen exposure during this time causes the
most severe congenital anomalies. A is incorrect because the third trimester is primarily
for growth, not organ formation. C is incorrect because the fetal period is for growth and
maturation; organs are already formed. D is incorrect because preconception exposure
may affect gametes but does not cause the same structural anomalies as embryonic
exposure. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Q3: A pregnant patient with BMI 32 (obese) asks about recommended weight gain.
Which recommendation is correct?
A. 25-35 lbs
B. 15-25 lbs
C. 11-20 lbs [CORRECT]
,D. 28-40 lbs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Institute of Medicine recommends weight gain of 11-20 lbs for women
with pre-pregnancy obesity (BMI ≥30). Underweight women (BMI <18.5) should gain
28-40 lbs; normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9) should gain 25-35 lbs; overweight (BMI
25-29.9) should gain 15-25 lbs. A is incorrect because 25-35 lbs is for normal weight. B
is incorrect because 15-25 lbs is for overweight. D is incorrect because 28-40 lbs is for
underweight women. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Q4: A pregnant patient asks why she needs iron supplementation during pregnancy.
Which explanation is most accurate?
A. Iron prevents gestational diabetes
B. Iron supports the 50% increase in maternal blood volume and fetal/placental
development, preventing iron deficiency anemia [CORRECT]
C. Iron is needed for calcium absorption
D. Iron prevents neural tube defects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pregnancy requires approximately 1000 mg of additional iron to support the
50% expansion of maternal blood volume, fetal growth, and placental development. Iron
deficiency anemia is common in pregnancy due to increased demands. A is incorrect
because iron does not prevent gestational diabetes. C is incorrect because vitamin D,
, not iron, is needed for calcium absorption. D is incorrect because folic acid prevents
neural tube defects, not iron. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Q5: A pregnant patient at her initial prenatal visit is Rh-negative. Which laboratory and
preventive measure is correct?
A. No special testing or treatment is needed for Rh-negative patients
B. Blood type and antibody screen are obtained; RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive [CORRECT]
C. RhoGAM is given only if the patient has a miscarriage
D. Rh sensitization is prevented by avoiding all prenatal procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rh-negative patients receive an antibody screen at the first prenatal visit and
again at 28 weeks. RhoGAM (RhIg) is administered at 28 weeks antepartum and within
72 hours postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive. Additional doses are given after any
sensitizing event (miscarriage, abortion, amniocentesis, CVS, trauma, bleeding). A is
incorrect because Rh-negative status requires specific management. C is incorrect
because RhoGAM is given routinely, not just after miscarriage. D is incorrect because
avoiding procedures is not practical; RhoGAM prevents sensitization. [100% VERIFIED –
Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
SECTION 1: Reproductive Health, Genetics, & Prenatal Care (Q1-Q20)
Q1: A 24-year-old female asks when she is most fertile during her menstrual cycle.
Which response by the nurse is correct?
A. During menstruation
B. Approximately 14 days before the next menstrual period, around the time of ovulation
[CORRECT]
C. During the luteal phase, after ovulation has occurred
D. On the first day of the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the onset of the next
menstrual period, triggered by the LH surge. The fertile window includes the 5 days
before ovulation and the day of ovulation itself due to sperm survival in the reproductive
tract. A is incorrect because menstruation is the shedding of the endometrium, not the
fertile period. C is incorrect because the luteal phase occurs after ovulation when the
egg is no longer viable. D is incorrect because day 1 is the beginning of menstruation,
not the fertile period. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
,Q2: A pregnant patient asks about the critical period of embryonic development when
teratogens are most dangerous. Which response is correct?
A. The third trimester, when organs are maturing
B. The embryonic period, weeks 3-8, when organogenesis occurs [CORRECT]
C. The fetal period, weeks 9-40
D. The preconception period, before fertilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 3-8) is the critical period of organogenesis
when the major organ systems form. Teratogen exposure during this time causes the
most severe congenital anomalies. A is incorrect because the third trimester is primarily
for growth, not organ formation. C is incorrect because the fetal period is for growth and
maturation; organs are already formed. D is incorrect because preconception exposure
may affect gametes but does not cause the same structural anomalies as embryonic
exposure. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Q3: A pregnant patient with BMI 32 (obese) asks about recommended weight gain.
Which recommendation is correct?
A. 25-35 lbs
B. 15-25 lbs
C. 11-20 lbs [CORRECT]
,D. 28-40 lbs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Institute of Medicine recommends weight gain of 11-20 lbs for women
with pre-pregnancy obesity (BMI ≥30). Underweight women (BMI <18.5) should gain
28-40 lbs; normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9) should gain 25-35 lbs; overweight (BMI
25-29.9) should gain 15-25 lbs. A is incorrect because 25-35 lbs is for normal weight. B
is incorrect because 15-25 lbs is for overweight. D is incorrect because 28-40 lbs is for
underweight women. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Q4: A pregnant patient asks why she needs iron supplementation during pregnancy.
Which explanation is most accurate?
A. Iron prevents gestational diabetes
B. Iron supports the 50% increase in maternal blood volume and fetal/placental
development, preventing iron deficiency anemia [CORRECT]
C. Iron is needed for calcium absorption
D. Iron prevents neural tube defects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pregnancy requires approximately 1000 mg of additional iron to support the
50% expansion of maternal blood volume, fetal growth, and placental development. Iron
deficiency anemia is common in pregnancy due to increased demands. A is incorrect
because iron does not prevent gestational diabetes. C is incorrect because vitamin D,
, not iron, is needed for calcium absorption. D is incorrect because folic acid prevents
neural tube defects, not iron. [100% VERIFIED – Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
Q5: A pregnant patient at her initial prenatal visit is Rh-negative. Which laboratory and
preventive measure is correct?
A. No special testing or treatment is needed for Rh-negative patients
B. Blood type and antibody screen are obtained; RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive [CORRECT]
C. RhoGAM is given only if the patient has a miscarriage
D. Rh sensitization is prevented by avoiding all prenatal procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rh-negative patients receive an antibody screen at the first prenatal visit and
again at 28 weeks. RhoGAM (RhIg) is administered at 28 weeks antepartum and within
72 hours postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive. Additional doses are given after any
sensitizing event (miscarriage, abortion, amniocentesis, CVS, trauma, bleeding). A is
incorrect because Rh-negative status requires specific management. C is incorrect
because RhoGAM is given routinely, not just after miscarriage. D is incorrect because
avoiding procedures is not practical; RhoGAM prevents sensitization. [100% VERIFIED –
Rasmussen NUR2513 FINAL]
