NORTH AMERICAN PHARMACIST LICENSURE
(NAPLEX) EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALE 2026 Q&A| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pharmacist receives a prescription for amoxicillin 875 mg
PO BID for 10 days. How many tablets should be
dispensed?
A. 10 tablets
B. 20 tablets
C. 30 tablets
D. 40 tablets
Rationale: The patient will take 2 doses per day for 10 days.
Total tablets required = 2 × 10 = 20 tablets. Accurate quantity
calculations are essential to ensure appropriate therapy
duration and prevent treatment interruption.
2. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly
associated with loop diuretics such as furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase urinary excretion of
potassium, sodium, calcium, and magnesium. Hypokalemia is a
common adverse effect and can increase the risk of
arrhythmias, particularly in patients with cardiac disease.
, 3. Which medication is considered first-line therapy for
anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Albuterol
D. Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the treatment of choice for
anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses airway edema,
bronchospasm, and hypotension. Antihistamines and
corticosteroids are adjunctive therapies and should not delay
epinephrine administration.
4. Which laboratory value is most useful for monitoring long-
term glycemic control in patients with diabetes?
A. Fasting plasma glucose
B. Random plasma glucose
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Hemoglobin A1C
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood glucose
levels over approximately 2–3 months and is the standard
measure for assessing long-term glycemic control and
treatment effectiveness.
5. A patient taking warfarin begins therapy with
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What is the most likely
outcome?
A. Decreased INR
B. No change in INR
,C. Increased INR and bleeding risk
D. Reduced anticoagulant effect
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits warfarin
metabolism and may alter vitamin K-producing gut flora,
leading to increased anticoagulant effects, elevated INR, and
increased bleeding risk.
6. Which antihypertensive medication is contraindicated
during pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril can cause fetal renal
damage, oligohydramnios, and fetal death. They are
contraindicated during pregnancy, especially in the second and
third trimesters.
7. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Vitamin K
D. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist
that rapidly reverses respiratory and central nervous system
depression caused by opioid overdose.
8. Which statin has the highest intensity at approved doses?
, A. Pravastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. Atorvastatin 80 mg
D. Lovastatin
Rationale: High-intensity statin therapy includes atorvastatin
40–80 mg and rosuvastatin 20–40 mg. These regimens typically
reduce LDL cholesterol by at least 50%.
9. Which insulin product has the fastest onset of action?
A. NPH insulin
B. Insulin glargine
C. Regular insulin
D. Insulin lispro
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog with an
onset of approximately 15 minutes, making it suitable for
administration immediately before meals.
10. A patient with asthma requires a rescue inhaler.
Which medication is most appropriate?
A. Fluticasone
B. Budesonide
C. Montelukast
D. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that
provides rapid bronchodilation and is the preferred rescue
medication for acute asthma symptoms.
11. Which pathogen is most commonly associated with
peptic ulcer disease?
(NAPLEX) EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALE 2026 Q&A| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pharmacist receives a prescription for amoxicillin 875 mg
PO BID for 10 days. How many tablets should be
dispensed?
A. 10 tablets
B. 20 tablets
C. 30 tablets
D. 40 tablets
Rationale: The patient will take 2 doses per day for 10 days.
Total tablets required = 2 × 10 = 20 tablets. Accurate quantity
calculations are essential to ensure appropriate therapy
duration and prevent treatment interruption.
2. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly
associated with loop diuretics such as furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase urinary excretion of
potassium, sodium, calcium, and magnesium. Hypokalemia is a
common adverse effect and can increase the risk of
arrhythmias, particularly in patients with cardiac disease.
, 3. Which medication is considered first-line therapy for
anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Albuterol
D. Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the treatment of choice for
anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses airway edema,
bronchospasm, and hypotension. Antihistamines and
corticosteroids are adjunctive therapies and should not delay
epinephrine administration.
4. Which laboratory value is most useful for monitoring long-
term glycemic control in patients with diabetes?
A. Fasting plasma glucose
B. Random plasma glucose
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Hemoglobin A1C
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood glucose
levels over approximately 2–3 months and is the standard
measure for assessing long-term glycemic control and
treatment effectiveness.
5. A patient taking warfarin begins therapy with
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What is the most likely
outcome?
A. Decreased INR
B. No change in INR
,C. Increased INR and bleeding risk
D. Reduced anticoagulant effect
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits warfarin
metabolism and may alter vitamin K-producing gut flora,
leading to increased anticoagulant effects, elevated INR, and
increased bleeding risk.
6. Which antihypertensive medication is contraindicated
during pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril can cause fetal renal
damage, oligohydramnios, and fetal death. They are
contraindicated during pregnancy, especially in the second and
third trimesters.
7. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Vitamin K
D. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist
that rapidly reverses respiratory and central nervous system
depression caused by opioid overdose.
8. Which statin has the highest intensity at approved doses?
, A. Pravastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. Atorvastatin 80 mg
D. Lovastatin
Rationale: High-intensity statin therapy includes atorvastatin
40–80 mg and rosuvastatin 20–40 mg. These regimens typically
reduce LDL cholesterol by at least 50%.
9. Which insulin product has the fastest onset of action?
A. NPH insulin
B. Insulin glargine
C. Regular insulin
D. Insulin lispro
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog with an
onset of approximately 15 minutes, making it suitable for
administration immediately before meals.
10. A patient with asthma requires a rescue inhaler.
Which medication is most appropriate?
A. Fluticasone
B. Budesonide
C. Montelukast
D. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that
provides rapid bronchodilation and is the preferred rescue
medication for acute asthma symptoms.
11. Which pathogen is most commonly associated with
peptic ulcer disease?
