ATI MED-SURG PROCTORED ASSESSMENT ULTIMATE SUCCESS
GUIDE | LATEST 2026 EDITION | COMPREHENSIVE MEDICAL-
SURGICAL NURSING & NCLEX REVIEW | EXAM-STYLE PRACTICE
QUESTIONS, VERIFIED ANSWERS & IN-DEPTH RATIONALES |
COMPLETE PREP RESOURCE | INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
1. The nurse is preparing a client for an endoscopic procedure and notes the client has dentures.
Which action should the nurse take before the procedure?
A) Leave the dentures in place for the procedure
B) Remove the dentures and store them properly
C) Have the client remove dentures after sedation
D) Ask the client to keep dentures in during transport
Correct Answer B) Remove the dentures and store them properly
EXPERT RATIONALE: Before an endoscopy, the client should remain NPO for 6-8 hours and
dentures must be removed to prevent airway obstruction or aspiration during the procedure; the
nurse should document removal and store dentures safely according to facility policy to ensure
client safety and prevent loss of personal belongings.
2. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a chest tube insertion procedure. Which action correctly
demonstrates the opening sequence of a sterile package?
A) Unfold the flap closest to the body first
B) Unfold the side flaps before the farthest flap
C) Unfold the flap farthest from the body first
D) Unfold the flap closest to the non-dominant hand first
Correct Answer C) Unfold the flap farthest from the body first
EXPERT RATIONALE: The correct sterile package opening sequence requires unfolding the flap
furthest from the body first, followed by the side flaps, and finally the flap closest to the body;
this technique prevents contamination by keeping the nurse's arms and body away from the
sterile field and reduces the risk of reaching over the sterile surface.
3. The nurse is wearing sterile gloves for a sterile procedure. Which object can the nurse touch
without breaking sterile technique?
A) The outside of the sterile solution bottle
B) The edge of the sterile drape at the base of the field
C) The inner wrapping of an item on the sterile field
D) The client's skin near the procedure site
,Correct Answer: C) The inner wrapping of an item on the sterile field
EXPERT RATIONALE: The nurse can touch the inner wrapping of an item on the sterile field
because the inner surface is considered sterile; the outside of the bottle, drape edges, and client's
skin are all considered non-sterile and would break sterile technique if touched with sterile
gloves, potentially introducing microorganisms to the sterile field.
4. A nurse has prepared a sterile field for a provider to insert a chest tube. Which event should the
nurse recognize as contaminating the field?
A) The provider drops a sterile instrument onto the near side of the sterile field
B) The nurse moistens a cotton ball with sterile normal saline and places it on the sterile field
C) The procedure is delayed for 1 hour because the provider receives an emergency call
D) The client's hand brushes against the outer edge of the sterile field
Correct Answer: C) The procedure is delayed for 1 hour because the provider receives an
emergency call
EXPERT RATIONALE: A sterile field that is left unattended or uncovered for an extended period
becomes contaminated due to airborne microorganisms; a delay of 1 hour would require the field
to be re-established; the provider's instrument drop onto the near side and client touching the
outer edge do not contaminate the central sterile field, and moistening a cotton ball with sterile
saline is an acceptable practice if done correctly.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which precautionary action should
the nurse implement first?
A) Place the client in a positive pressure room
B) Wear a standard surgical mask during client care
C) Place the client in a negative airflow room
D) Restrict all visitors from entering the room
Correct Answer: C) Place the client in a negative airflow room
EXPERT RATIONALE: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions with a negative airflow room to
prevent the spread of droplet nuclei; the nurse should also wear an N95 respirator mask, and the
client should wear a mask when leaving the room; a standard surgical mask does not provide
adequate protection against airborne TB particles that can remain suspended in the air for hours.
6. The nurse is teaching a client with tuberculosis about the medication regimen. Which
statement indicates the client understands the treatment duration?
A) "I will take my medications for 2 to 4 weeks."
B) "I will take my medications for 6 to 12 months."
C) "I will take my medications for 3 to 6 months."
D) "I will take my medications for 1 to 2 years."
,Correct Answer: B) "I will take my medications for 6 to 12 months."
EXPERT RATIONALE: TB treatment involves four medications taken for 6 to 12 months to ensure
complete eradication of the bacteria and prevent development of drug resistance; family
members should be screened, and the client is no longer considered contagious when they have
three negative sputum cultures.
7. A client taking isoniazid for tuberculosis reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet.
The nurse should recognize this as indicating which condition?
A) An expected side effect requiring no intervention
B) Peripheral neuropathy requiring vitamin B6 supplementation
C) An allergic reaction requiring immediate medication discontinuation
D) A sign of medication toxicity requiring dose reduction
Correct Answer: B) Peripheral neuropathy requiring vitamin B6 supplementation
EXPERT RATIONALE: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy manifested as numbness and
tingling in the hands and feet; this side effect is managed with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
supplementation; the nurse should notify the healthcare provider for a prescription to add vitamin
B6 to the medication regimen.
8. The nurse is providing education to a client prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "My urine and tears may turn orange, and that's normal."
B) "I should watch for jaundice and report it immediately."
C) "Rifampin may interfere with my birth control pills."
D) "I can stop taking the medication when I feel better."
Correct Answer: D) "I can stop taking the medication when I feel better."
EXPERT RATIONALE: Rifampin causes orange discoloration of bodily secretions which is
normal; it can cause hepatotoxicity so jaundice should be reported; it interferes with oral
contraceptives; however, the client must complete the full course of treatment and should never
stop the medication when feeling better to prevent drug resistance and relapse.
9. The nurse is caring for a client prescribed ethambutol for tuberculosis. Which assessment
finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
A) Orange-colored urine
B) Numbness in the fingers
C) Changes in visual acuity
D) Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C) Changes in visual acuity
, EXPERT RATIONALE: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis leading to vision changes including
decreased visual acuity, red-green color blindness, and blurred vision; any vision changes should
be reported immediately as they may be irreversible if the medication is continued; other side
effects like orange urine are associated with rifampin, not ethambutol.
10. The nurse is providing client teaching for a client with genital herpes. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I am only contagious when I have visible blisters."
B) "I should abstain from intercourse until lesions are completely healed."
C) "There is a cure for genital herpes with proper medication."
D) "I can share towels and linens with my partner."
Correct Answer: B) "I should abstain from intercourse until lesions are completely healed."
EXPERT RATIONALE: Genital herpes can be transmitted with or without visible blisters, so sexual
partners should be informed and screened; there is no cure, only symptom management; the
client should abstain from intercourse until lesions are completely healed and gently clean areas
with mild soap and water; sharing towels should be avoided to prevent transmission.
11. The nurse is caring for a client following a right-sided stroke with left-sided hemiplegia.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
A) Position the client in a low Fowler's position
B) Support the left arm with pillows or slings
C) Encourage the client to eat solid foods immediately
D) Keep suction equipment available for oral care only
Correct Answer: B) Support the left arm with pillows or slings
EXPERT RATIONALE: Following a stroke with hemiplegia, the affected arm should be supported
with pillows or slings to prevent shoulder subluxation and maintain proper alignment; the client
should be in high Fowler's position for eating, require thickened liquids and foods, have the gag
reflex and swallowing ability monitored, and have suction equipment available for airway
management.
12. The nurse is teaching a client with heart failure about foods high in sodium that should be
avoided. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from the diet?
A) Fresh fruits and vegetables
B) Unsalted nuts and seeds
C) Baked ham and cold cuts
D) Plain rice and pasta
Correct Answer: C) Baked ham and cold cuts
GUIDE | LATEST 2026 EDITION | COMPREHENSIVE MEDICAL-
SURGICAL NURSING & NCLEX REVIEW | EXAM-STYLE PRACTICE
QUESTIONS, VERIFIED ANSWERS & IN-DEPTH RATIONALES |
COMPLETE PREP RESOURCE | INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
1. The nurse is preparing a client for an endoscopic procedure and notes the client has dentures.
Which action should the nurse take before the procedure?
A) Leave the dentures in place for the procedure
B) Remove the dentures and store them properly
C) Have the client remove dentures after sedation
D) Ask the client to keep dentures in during transport
Correct Answer B) Remove the dentures and store them properly
EXPERT RATIONALE: Before an endoscopy, the client should remain NPO for 6-8 hours and
dentures must be removed to prevent airway obstruction or aspiration during the procedure; the
nurse should document removal and store dentures safely according to facility policy to ensure
client safety and prevent loss of personal belongings.
2. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a chest tube insertion procedure. Which action correctly
demonstrates the opening sequence of a sterile package?
A) Unfold the flap closest to the body first
B) Unfold the side flaps before the farthest flap
C) Unfold the flap farthest from the body first
D) Unfold the flap closest to the non-dominant hand first
Correct Answer C) Unfold the flap farthest from the body first
EXPERT RATIONALE: The correct sterile package opening sequence requires unfolding the flap
furthest from the body first, followed by the side flaps, and finally the flap closest to the body;
this technique prevents contamination by keeping the nurse's arms and body away from the
sterile field and reduces the risk of reaching over the sterile surface.
3. The nurse is wearing sterile gloves for a sterile procedure. Which object can the nurse touch
without breaking sterile technique?
A) The outside of the sterile solution bottle
B) The edge of the sterile drape at the base of the field
C) The inner wrapping of an item on the sterile field
D) The client's skin near the procedure site
,Correct Answer: C) The inner wrapping of an item on the sterile field
EXPERT RATIONALE: The nurse can touch the inner wrapping of an item on the sterile field
because the inner surface is considered sterile; the outside of the bottle, drape edges, and client's
skin are all considered non-sterile and would break sterile technique if touched with sterile
gloves, potentially introducing microorganisms to the sterile field.
4. A nurse has prepared a sterile field for a provider to insert a chest tube. Which event should the
nurse recognize as contaminating the field?
A) The provider drops a sterile instrument onto the near side of the sterile field
B) The nurse moistens a cotton ball with sterile normal saline and places it on the sterile field
C) The procedure is delayed for 1 hour because the provider receives an emergency call
D) The client's hand brushes against the outer edge of the sterile field
Correct Answer: C) The procedure is delayed for 1 hour because the provider receives an
emergency call
EXPERT RATIONALE: A sterile field that is left unattended or uncovered for an extended period
becomes contaminated due to airborne microorganisms; a delay of 1 hour would require the field
to be re-established; the provider's instrument drop onto the near side and client touching the
outer edge do not contaminate the central sterile field, and moistening a cotton ball with sterile
saline is an acceptable practice if done correctly.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which precautionary action should
the nurse implement first?
A) Place the client in a positive pressure room
B) Wear a standard surgical mask during client care
C) Place the client in a negative airflow room
D) Restrict all visitors from entering the room
Correct Answer: C) Place the client in a negative airflow room
EXPERT RATIONALE: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions with a negative airflow room to
prevent the spread of droplet nuclei; the nurse should also wear an N95 respirator mask, and the
client should wear a mask when leaving the room; a standard surgical mask does not provide
adequate protection against airborne TB particles that can remain suspended in the air for hours.
6. The nurse is teaching a client with tuberculosis about the medication regimen. Which
statement indicates the client understands the treatment duration?
A) "I will take my medications for 2 to 4 weeks."
B) "I will take my medications for 6 to 12 months."
C) "I will take my medications for 3 to 6 months."
D) "I will take my medications for 1 to 2 years."
,Correct Answer: B) "I will take my medications for 6 to 12 months."
EXPERT RATIONALE: TB treatment involves four medications taken for 6 to 12 months to ensure
complete eradication of the bacteria and prevent development of drug resistance; family
members should be screened, and the client is no longer considered contagious when they have
three negative sputum cultures.
7. A client taking isoniazid for tuberculosis reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet.
The nurse should recognize this as indicating which condition?
A) An expected side effect requiring no intervention
B) Peripheral neuropathy requiring vitamin B6 supplementation
C) An allergic reaction requiring immediate medication discontinuation
D) A sign of medication toxicity requiring dose reduction
Correct Answer: B) Peripheral neuropathy requiring vitamin B6 supplementation
EXPERT RATIONALE: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy manifested as numbness and
tingling in the hands and feet; this side effect is managed with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
supplementation; the nurse should notify the healthcare provider for a prescription to add vitamin
B6 to the medication regimen.
8. The nurse is providing education to a client prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "My urine and tears may turn orange, and that's normal."
B) "I should watch for jaundice and report it immediately."
C) "Rifampin may interfere with my birth control pills."
D) "I can stop taking the medication when I feel better."
Correct Answer: D) "I can stop taking the medication when I feel better."
EXPERT RATIONALE: Rifampin causes orange discoloration of bodily secretions which is
normal; it can cause hepatotoxicity so jaundice should be reported; it interferes with oral
contraceptives; however, the client must complete the full course of treatment and should never
stop the medication when feeling better to prevent drug resistance and relapse.
9. The nurse is caring for a client prescribed ethambutol for tuberculosis. Which assessment
finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
A) Orange-colored urine
B) Numbness in the fingers
C) Changes in visual acuity
D) Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C) Changes in visual acuity
, EXPERT RATIONALE: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis leading to vision changes including
decreased visual acuity, red-green color blindness, and blurred vision; any vision changes should
be reported immediately as they may be irreversible if the medication is continued; other side
effects like orange urine are associated with rifampin, not ethambutol.
10. The nurse is providing client teaching for a client with genital herpes. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I am only contagious when I have visible blisters."
B) "I should abstain from intercourse until lesions are completely healed."
C) "There is a cure for genital herpes with proper medication."
D) "I can share towels and linens with my partner."
Correct Answer: B) "I should abstain from intercourse until lesions are completely healed."
EXPERT RATIONALE: Genital herpes can be transmitted with or without visible blisters, so sexual
partners should be informed and screened; there is no cure, only symptom management; the
client should abstain from intercourse until lesions are completely healed and gently clean areas
with mild soap and water; sharing towels should be avoided to prevent transmission.
11. The nurse is caring for a client following a right-sided stroke with left-sided hemiplegia.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
A) Position the client in a low Fowler's position
B) Support the left arm with pillows or slings
C) Encourage the client to eat solid foods immediately
D) Keep suction equipment available for oral care only
Correct Answer: B) Support the left arm with pillows or slings
EXPERT RATIONALE: Following a stroke with hemiplegia, the affected arm should be supported
with pillows or slings to prevent shoulder subluxation and maintain proper alignment; the client
should be in high Fowler's position for eating, require thickened liquids and foods, have the gag
reflex and swallowing ability monitored, and have suction equipment available for airway
management.
12. The nurse is teaching a client with heart failure about foods high in sodium that should be
avoided. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from the diet?
A) Fresh fruits and vegetables
B) Unsalted nuts and seeds
C) Baked ham and cold cuts
D) Plain rice and pasta
Correct Answer: C) Baked ham and cold cuts
