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EXAMS
2027 LATEST VERSION 100% PASS.. | Questions & Answers (Verified
Answers) With Rationales ( Update)
This Document Contains:
150 Questions with Correct, Detailed and Verified Answers
2026/2027 Actual Comprehensive Exam Testbank
Questions & Answers (Verified Answers) With Rationales
100% Guaranteed Pass
Complete A+ Guide
Page 1
,Question 1
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. The
patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds, and the patient is exhibiting
signs of bleeding. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer protamine sulfate intravenously.
B) Decrease the heparin infusion rate by 50%.
C) Discontinue the heparin infusion immediately.
D) Apply pressure to any visible bleeding sites and monitor.
Answer: C) Discontinue the heparin infusion immediately.
Explanation: The critically elevated aPTT and active bleeding indicate heparin overdose. The priorit
y
is to discontinue the infusion to prevent further bleeding. Protamine sulfate is an
antidote but may be administered after discontinuing heparin. Decreasing the rate will
not address the immediate risk.
Question 2
A nurse is evaluating a patient who has been receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which
assessment finding best indicates that the medication has been effective?
A) Decreased peripheral edema and increased urine output.
B) Increased serum potassium level.
C) Blood pressure reduction from 160/90 to 140/85 mm Hg.
D) Weight gain of 2 kg over 24 hours.
Answer: A) Decreased peripheral edema and increased urine output.
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure.
Effectiveness is best indicated by decreased edema and increased urine output,
reflecting reduced extracellular fluid volume. While blood pressure may decrease, it is
not the primary goal. Weight gain suggests fluid retention, not resolution.
Page 2
,Question 3
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an
acute exacerbation. Arterial blood gas results show pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg,
and HCO3- 26 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse identify?
A) Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation.
B) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation.
C) Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation.
D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation.
Answer: B) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation.
Explanation: The pH is low (acidosis), PaCO2 is elevated (respiratory cause), and HCO3- is normal
(no compensation). This indicates acute respiratory acidosis without renal
compensation, as renal compensation takes days. Metabolic acidosis would show low
HCO3-. Alkalosis would have high pH.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a patient. Which action is most
important to prevent a transfusion reaction?
A) Verify the patient's identity and blood product with two identifiers.
B) Obtain informed consent for the transfusion.
C) Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
D) Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes during the transfusion.
Answer: A) Verify the patient's identity and blood product with two identifiers.
Explanation: The most critical step to prevent transfusion reactions is proper patient identification
and blood product verification to prevent ABO incompatibility. While other steps are
important (consent, priming, monitoring), they do not directly prevent the most severe
reactions.
Page 3
, Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. The patient reports tingling
around the lips and fingertips. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A) Thyroid storm.
B) Hypocalcemia due to parathyroid injury.
C) Laryngeal nerve damage.
D) Hemorrhage.
Answer: B) Hypocalcemia due to parathyroid injury.
Explanation: Tingling (paresthesias) around the mouth and fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia,
often due to inadvertent removal or damage to the parathyroid glands during
thyroidectomy. Thyroid storm presents with hyperthermia, tachycardia, and
hypertension. Laryngeal nerve damage causes hoarseness. Hemorrhage presents with
neck swelling and respiratory distress.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed phenelzine, a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
A) Fresh fruits and vegetables.
B) Aged cheeses and cured meats.
C) Whole grain breads.
D) Lean poultry and fish.
Answer: B) Aged cheeses and cured meats.
Explanation: MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine, leading to hypertensive crisis if
tyramine-rich foods are consumed. Aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and
certain alcoholic beverages contain high tyramine. Fresh produce, whole grains, and
lean meats are generally safe.
Page 4
Download Download
EXAMS
2027 LATEST VERSION 100% PASS.. | Questions & Answers (Verified
Answers) With Rationales ( Update)
This Document Contains:
150 Questions with Correct, Detailed and Verified Answers
2026/2027 Actual Comprehensive Exam Testbank
Questions & Answers (Verified Answers) With Rationales
100% Guaranteed Pass
Complete A+ Guide
Page 1
,Question 1
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. The
patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds, and the patient is exhibiting
signs of bleeding. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer protamine sulfate intravenously.
B) Decrease the heparin infusion rate by 50%.
C) Discontinue the heparin infusion immediately.
D) Apply pressure to any visible bleeding sites and monitor.
Answer: C) Discontinue the heparin infusion immediately.
Explanation: The critically elevated aPTT and active bleeding indicate heparin overdose. The priorit
y
is to discontinue the infusion to prevent further bleeding. Protamine sulfate is an
antidote but may be administered after discontinuing heparin. Decreasing the rate will
not address the immediate risk.
Question 2
A nurse is evaluating a patient who has been receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which
assessment finding best indicates that the medication has been effective?
A) Decreased peripheral edema and increased urine output.
B) Increased serum potassium level.
C) Blood pressure reduction from 160/90 to 140/85 mm Hg.
D) Weight gain of 2 kg over 24 hours.
Answer: A) Decreased peripheral edema and increased urine output.
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure.
Effectiveness is best indicated by decreased edema and increased urine output,
reflecting reduced extracellular fluid volume. While blood pressure may decrease, it is
not the primary goal. Weight gain suggests fluid retention, not resolution.
Page 2
,Question 3
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an
acute exacerbation. Arterial blood gas results show pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg,
and HCO3- 26 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse identify?
A) Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation.
B) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation.
C) Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation.
D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation.
Answer: B) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation.
Explanation: The pH is low (acidosis), PaCO2 is elevated (respiratory cause), and HCO3- is normal
(no compensation). This indicates acute respiratory acidosis without renal
compensation, as renal compensation takes days. Metabolic acidosis would show low
HCO3-. Alkalosis would have high pH.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a patient. Which action is most
important to prevent a transfusion reaction?
A) Verify the patient's identity and blood product with two identifiers.
B) Obtain informed consent for the transfusion.
C) Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
D) Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes during the transfusion.
Answer: A) Verify the patient's identity and blood product with two identifiers.
Explanation: The most critical step to prevent transfusion reactions is proper patient identification
and blood product verification to prevent ABO incompatibility. While other steps are
important (consent, priming, monitoring), they do not directly prevent the most severe
reactions.
Page 3
, Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. The patient reports tingling
around the lips and fingertips. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A) Thyroid storm.
B) Hypocalcemia due to parathyroid injury.
C) Laryngeal nerve damage.
D) Hemorrhage.
Answer: B) Hypocalcemia due to parathyroid injury.
Explanation: Tingling (paresthesias) around the mouth and fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia,
often due to inadvertent removal or damage to the parathyroid glands during
thyroidectomy. Thyroid storm presents with hyperthermia, tachycardia, and
hypertension. Laryngeal nerve damage causes hoarseness. Hemorrhage presents with
neck swelling and respiratory distress.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed phenelzine, a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
A) Fresh fruits and vegetables.
B) Aged cheeses and cured meats.
C) Whole grain breads.
D) Lean poultry and fish.
Answer: B) Aged cheeses and cured meats.
Explanation: MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine, leading to hypertensive crisis if
tyramine-rich foods are consumed. Aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and
certain alcoholic beverages contain high tyramine. Fresh produce, whole grains, and
lean meats are generally safe.
Page 4
