NUR 6121 Exam 2 Prep 2026: 200 Practice Questions & Detailed
Answers | 100% Correct WPU Nursing Update
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has been prescribed furosemide. Which
laboratory value requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider?
A. Sodium 135 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Chloride 100 mEq/L
D. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium). A potassium of
3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.55.0 mEq/L) and increases the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a hemoglobin A1c of 9.5%. The nurse understands that this
value indicates:
A. Excellent blood glucose control
B. Average blood glucose over the past 23 months is approximately 226 mg/dL
C. The patient has not eaten for 8 hours
D. The patient has ketones in the urine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose over 23 months. An A1c of 9.5%
corresponds to an estimated average glucose of ~226 mg/dL, indicating poor glycemic control (target
<7% for most adults).
3. A postoperative patient reports sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and hypoxia. The nurse suspects a
pulmonary embolism. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer oxygen and notify the provider
B. Give aspirin 325 mg orally
C. Ambulate the patient
D. Apply a heating pad to the chest
Correct Answer: A
,Explanation: The priority is to support oxygenation (administer oxygen) and immediately notify the
provider for further intervention (e.g., anticoagulation, imaging). Aspirin is not firstline for suspected PE.
4. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after initiation, the patient develops fever,
chills, and back pain. What should the nurse do first?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Flush the IV line with heparin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: These symptoms suggest an acute hemolytic or febrile transfusion reaction. The nurse must
stop the transfusion immediately, keep the IV line open with saline, and notify the provider.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about dietary restrictions. Which food
should the patient avoid due to high potassium content?
A. Apples
B. Bananas
C. White rice
D. Green beans
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bananas are high in potassium. In CKD, potassium can accumulate to dangerous levels
(hyperkalemia), so highpotassium foods (bananas, oranges, potatoes, tomatoes) should be limited.
6. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 88% on
room air. The nurse administers oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which finding would indicate an
appropriate response?
A. Respiratory rate increases to 28 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation increases to 92%
C. Patient becomes drowsy and confused
D. PaCO2 rises above 60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
,Explanation: The goal for COPD patients is typically SpO2 8892% to avoid CO2 retention. An increase to
92% is appropriate. Excessive oxygen can suppress hypoxic drive, causing hypercapnia and drowsiness.
7. A nurse is assessing a patient for signs of dehydration. Which finding is most consistent with
moderate dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse and edema
B. Tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, and decreased skin turgor
C. Hypertension and crackles in the lungs
D. Jugular venous distension
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dehydration causes fluid volume deficit, leading to tachycardia, dry mucous membranes,
poor skin turgor, hypotension, and concentrated urine. Edema, crackles, and JVD indicate fluid overload.
8. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test is used to monitor
therapeutic effect?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Ddimer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Warfarin is monitored using the International Normalized Ratio (INR), with a therapeutic
range typically 2.03.0 for atrial fibrillation. aPTT monitors heparin.
9. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which technique is essential to prevent
catheterassociated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A. Use sterile gloves and a sterile field
B. Clean the meatus with antiseptic solution from the anus to the urethra
C. Lubricate the catheter with petroleum jelly
D. Inflate the balloon before inserting the catheter
Correct Answer: A
, Explanation: Indwelling catheter insertion requires sterile technique (sterile gloves, field, equipment) to
prevent CAUTI. Cleaning should be front to back (urethra to anus). Only watersoluble lubricant should
be used.
10. A patient with pneumonia has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Before administering the first dose, the
nurse should ask about:
A. Allergy to penicillin or cephalosporins
B. History of asthma
C. Last bowel movement
D. Blood type
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin. Crossreactivity with penicillins occurs in about 510% of
patients. A known severe allergy to penicillins or cephalosporins is a contraindication.
11. A patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is most characteristic?
A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B. Elevated liver enzymes only
C. Decreased white blood cell count
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acute pancreatitis typically presents with elevated serum amylase and lipase (often 3 times
normal). Lipase is more specific. WBC may be elevated due to inflammation.
12. A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low intermittent suction. Which
finding indicates proper tube placement?
A. pH of aspirate is 2.0
B. pH of aspirate is 7.5
C. The tube is taped to the patient's forehead
D. The patient is coughing vigorously
Correct Answer: A
Answers | 100% Correct WPU Nursing Update
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has been prescribed furosemide. Which
laboratory value requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider?
A. Sodium 135 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Chloride 100 mEq/L
D. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium). A potassium of
3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.55.0 mEq/L) and increases the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a hemoglobin A1c of 9.5%. The nurse understands that this
value indicates:
A. Excellent blood glucose control
B. Average blood glucose over the past 23 months is approximately 226 mg/dL
C. The patient has not eaten for 8 hours
D. The patient has ketones in the urine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose over 23 months. An A1c of 9.5%
corresponds to an estimated average glucose of ~226 mg/dL, indicating poor glycemic control (target
<7% for most adults).
3. A postoperative patient reports sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and hypoxia. The nurse suspects a
pulmonary embolism. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer oxygen and notify the provider
B. Give aspirin 325 mg orally
C. Ambulate the patient
D. Apply a heating pad to the chest
Correct Answer: A
,Explanation: The priority is to support oxygenation (administer oxygen) and immediately notify the
provider for further intervention (e.g., anticoagulation, imaging). Aspirin is not firstline for suspected PE.
4. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after initiation, the patient develops fever,
chills, and back pain. What should the nurse do first?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Flush the IV line with heparin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: These symptoms suggest an acute hemolytic or febrile transfusion reaction. The nurse must
stop the transfusion immediately, keep the IV line open with saline, and notify the provider.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about dietary restrictions. Which food
should the patient avoid due to high potassium content?
A. Apples
B. Bananas
C. White rice
D. Green beans
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bananas are high in potassium. In CKD, potassium can accumulate to dangerous levels
(hyperkalemia), so highpotassium foods (bananas, oranges, potatoes, tomatoes) should be limited.
6. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 88% on
room air. The nurse administers oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which finding would indicate an
appropriate response?
A. Respiratory rate increases to 28 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation increases to 92%
C. Patient becomes drowsy and confused
D. PaCO2 rises above 60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
,Explanation: The goal for COPD patients is typically SpO2 8892% to avoid CO2 retention. An increase to
92% is appropriate. Excessive oxygen can suppress hypoxic drive, causing hypercapnia and drowsiness.
7. A nurse is assessing a patient for signs of dehydration. Which finding is most consistent with
moderate dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse and edema
B. Tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, and decreased skin turgor
C. Hypertension and crackles in the lungs
D. Jugular venous distension
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dehydration causes fluid volume deficit, leading to tachycardia, dry mucous membranes,
poor skin turgor, hypotension, and concentrated urine. Edema, crackles, and JVD indicate fluid overload.
8. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test is used to monitor
therapeutic effect?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Ddimer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Warfarin is monitored using the International Normalized Ratio (INR), with a therapeutic
range typically 2.03.0 for atrial fibrillation. aPTT monitors heparin.
9. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which technique is essential to prevent
catheterassociated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A. Use sterile gloves and a sterile field
B. Clean the meatus with antiseptic solution from the anus to the urethra
C. Lubricate the catheter with petroleum jelly
D. Inflate the balloon before inserting the catheter
Correct Answer: A
, Explanation: Indwelling catheter insertion requires sterile technique (sterile gloves, field, equipment) to
prevent CAUTI. Cleaning should be front to back (urethra to anus). Only watersoluble lubricant should
be used.
10. A patient with pneumonia has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Before administering the first dose, the
nurse should ask about:
A. Allergy to penicillin or cephalosporins
B. History of asthma
C. Last bowel movement
D. Blood type
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin. Crossreactivity with penicillins occurs in about 510% of
patients. A known severe allergy to penicillins or cephalosporins is a contraindication.
11. A patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is most characteristic?
A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B. Elevated liver enzymes only
C. Decreased white blood cell count
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acute pancreatitis typically presents with elevated serum amylase and lipase (often 3 times
normal). Lipase is more specific. WBC may be elevated due to inflammation.
12. A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low intermittent suction. Which
finding indicates proper tube placement?
A. pH of aspirate is 2.0
B. pH of aspirate is 7.5
C. The tube is taped to the patient's forehead
D. The patient is coughing vigorously
Correct Answer: A
