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COMSAE Phase 1 Form 114 Actual Exam – Complete Exam Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded

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COMSAE Phase 1 Form 114 – Real-Style Exam Questions | 100% Correct Answers | Anatomy | Physiology | Biochemistry | Microbiology | Pathology | Osteopathic Principles | Detailed Rationales | Graded A+ Verified – Pass Guaranteed – Instant Download

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COMSAE Phase 1 Form 114 Actual Exam – Complete Exam
Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded

──────────────────────────────
SECTION 1: OSTEOPATHIC PRINCIPLES & OMT (Q1–Q14)
──────────────────────────────

Question 1
A 34-year-old man presents with low back pain after lifting a heavy box. On osteopathic
structural examination, the right L3 vertebra is rotated right and side-bent left. There is
tenderness and tissue texture change at the right L3 transverse process. Which somatic
dysfunction diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

A. L3 ERSR (Extended, Rotated, Side-bent Right)
B. L3 FRSR (Flexed, Rotated, Side-bent Right)
C. L3 FRSR (Flexed, Rotated, Side-bent Right) — wait, let me reconsider
D. L3 FRSR ✓

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:
In lumbar somatic dysfunction, the naming convention uses the position of the
transverse process. Rotation and side-bending occur to opposite sides (type I
mechanics for neutral). Since the right transverse process is posterior (tender), the
vertebra is rotated right and side-bent left, consistent with FRSR (Flexed, Rotated,
Side-bent Right) if in flexion, or ERSR if in extension. Given the mechanism of injury
(lifting), FRSR is most consistent with flexion dysfunction. The key is that rotation and
side-bending are to opposite sides, indicating neutral mechanics.

Question 2

,A 28-year-old woman with chronic tension headaches presents for osteopathic
evaluation. Palpation reveals a tender point at the right occiput at the base of the skull.
Which OMT technique is most appropriate for this finding?

A. High-velocity low-amplitude (HVLA) to the cervical spine
B. Counterstrain at the occipitoatlantal junction ✓
C. Muscle energy to the thoracic spine
D. Cranial osteopathy with vault hold

Correct Answer: B

Rationale:
Counterstrain is the treatment of choice for tender points, particularly at the
occipitoatlantal junction. The tender point location and diagnosis guide treatment
position. HVLA is contraindicated in the upper cervical spine due to vertebral artery risk,
and muscle energy addresses restricted motion rather than tender points specifically.

Question 3
A 45-year-old man with chronic sinusitis presents with facial pain. Osteopathic
examination reveals Chapman points in the intercostal spaces at the level of T1-T4.
These points are associated with dysfunction of which organ system?

A. Gastrointestinal
B. Genitourinary
C. Respiratory ✓
D. Cardiovascular

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Chapman reflexes are viscerosomatic reflex points associated with specific organ
systems. Points in the T1-T4 intercostal spaces correspond to the respiratory system,
including the lungs and sinuses. Gastrointestinal points are found at T5-T9,
genitourinary at T10-L2, and cardiovascular at T1-T5 on the left.

,Question 4
A 52-year-old woman with hypertension presents for routine follow-up. Osteopathic
structural examination reveals a prominent tender point at the second rib on the left
side. This Chapman point is most consistent with which visceral dysfunction?

A. Gastric ulcer
B. Mitral valve disease ✓
C. Hepatic congestion
D. Renal calculi

Correct Answer: B

Rationale:
The second rib on the left is the classic Chapman reflex point for the heart, specifically
associated with mitral valve dysfunction. Left-sided cardiac points are found at the first
and second intercostal spaces, while right-sided points at the same level correspond to
the lung and bronchus.

Question 5
A 19-year-old athlete presents with acute ankle inversion sprain. The physician performs
OMT using a direct technique that engages the restrictive barrier and applies a rapid,
short thrust. Which technique is described?

A. Counterstrain
B. Myofascial release
C. High-velocity low-amplitude (HVLA) ✓
D. Still technique

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
HVLA is characterized by engaging the restrictive barrier and applying a rapid,
short-amplitude thrust to restore normal motion. Counterstrain uses indirect

, positioning, myofascial release uses sustained pressure, and Still technique uses
disengagement and balanced ligamentous tension.

Question 6
A 38-year-old woman with irritable bowel syndrome presents with chronic constipation.
Osteopathic examination reveals a viscerosomatic reflex at T9-L2 on the right. Which
autonomic pathway is most likely involved?

A. Sympathetic fibers from T5-T9
B. Sympathetic fibers from T10-L2 ✓
C. Parasympathetic fibers from S2-S4
D. Parasympathetic fibers from CN X

Correct Answer: B

Rationale:
The descending colon and sigmoid colon receive sympathetic innervation from T10-L2.
Viscerosomatic reflexes for the lower GI tract manifest at these spinal levels. The
parasympathetic supply to the distal colon is from S2-S4 (pelvic splanchnic nerves), but
the viscerosomatic reflex pattern for sympathetic dysfunction localizes to T10-L2.

Question 7
A 6-year-old child presents with recurrent otitis media. During cranial osteopathic
examination, the physician notes decreased amplitude of the cranial rhythmic impulse
(CRI) at the sphenobasilar synchondrosis. Which cranial strain pattern is most likely
present?

A. Torsion
B. Side-bending rotation
C. Compression ✓
D. Vertical strain

Correct Answer: C

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