NURS 2513 MIDTERM EXAM 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM – 300 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST & COMPLETE
UPDATE EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | ASSURED PASS
INSTRUCTIONS
Total questions: 300
Format: Multiple choice (200), Select all that apply (50), Short answer (30), Matching (20)
Time limit: 3 hours
Each correct answer: 1 point (MCQ, SATA, matching) or 2 points (short answer)
Passing score: 80% (240/300)
All answers have been expert verified and graded A+.
SECTION 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (Questions 1–200)
Q1. Which of the following is a priority nursing assessment when caring for a
patient with acute chest pain?
A) Blood glucose level
B) Heart rate and rhythm
C) Urinary output
D) Bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B (Heart rate and rhythm)
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate cardiac ischemia, requiring immediate
assessment of heart rate and rhythm to detect arrhythmias.
1|Page
,Q2. A patient with type 2 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 280 mg/dL. The
nurse should first:
A) Administer oral glucose
B) Notify the provider
C) Check for ketones in urine
D) Give insulin as ordered
Correct Answer: D (Give insulin as ordered)
Rationale: Hyperglycemia requires insulin administration per provider order; oral
glucose is for hypoglycemia.
Q3. The nurse is teaching a patient about proper inhaler use. Which patient
statement indicates correct understanding?
A) "I will shake the inhaler before each use."
B) "I will hold my breath for 5 seconds after inhaling."
C) "I will rinse my mouth after using a corticosteroid inhaler."
D) "All of the above."
Correct Answer: D (All of the above)
Rationale: Shaking ensures proper dose, holding breath improves deposition, and
rinsing prevents oral thrush with corticosteroids.
Q4. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid
resuscitation in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A) Heart rate
B) Blood pressure
C) Urine output
D) Capillary refill time
2|Page
,Correct Answer: C (Urine output)
Rationale: Urine output ≥0.5 mL/kg/hr reflects adequate kidney perfusion and
fluid volume status.
Q5. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. The nurse notes the patient has
developed hives and itching. What is the first action?
A) Stop the transfusion
B) Slow the transfusion rate
C) Administer diphenhydramine
D) Notify the provider
Correct Answer: A (Stop the transfusion)
Rationale: This is a possible allergic reaction; stopping the transfusion is the
priority before any other intervention.
Q6. The nurse is preparing to administer a liquid medication through a nasogastric
tube. Which action is correct?
A) Administer the medication at room temperature
B) Flush the tube with 50 mL of water before and after medication
C) Crush tablets and mix with water
D) Give the medication immediately after checking tube placement
Correct Answer: D (Give the medication immediately after checking tube
placement)
Rationale: Confirm tube placement before each administration. Flushing before
and after (30 mL is typical, not 50 mL) is also correct but the priority step is
verifying placement.
3|Page
, Q7. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
A) Family history
B) Age over 55
C) Hypertension
D) Male gender
Correct Answer: C (Hypertension)
Rationale: Hypertension can be controlled through lifestyle and medication;
family history, age, and gender are non-modifiable.
Q8. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
A) Blood pressure
B) Cardiac rhythm
C) Lung sounds
D) Bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B (Cardiac rhythm)
Rationale: Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias; a cardiac
monitor should be applied immediately.
Q9. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving morphine via patient-controlled
analgesia (PCA). Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
A) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
B) Pain score of 3/10
C) Nausea without vomiting
D) Sedation score of 1 (awake and alert)
Correct Answer: A (Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min)
4|Page
ACTUAL EXAM – 300 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST & COMPLETE
UPDATE EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | ASSURED PASS
INSTRUCTIONS
Total questions: 300
Format: Multiple choice (200), Select all that apply (50), Short answer (30), Matching (20)
Time limit: 3 hours
Each correct answer: 1 point (MCQ, SATA, matching) or 2 points (short answer)
Passing score: 80% (240/300)
All answers have been expert verified and graded A+.
SECTION 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (Questions 1–200)
Q1. Which of the following is a priority nursing assessment when caring for a
patient with acute chest pain?
A) Blood glucose level
B) Heart rate and rhythm
C) Urinary output
D) Bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B (Heart rate and rhythm)
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate cardiac ischemia, requiring immediate
assessment of heart rate and rhythm to detect arrhythmias.
1|Page
,Q2. A patient with type 2 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 280 mg/dL. The
nurse should first:
A) Administer oral glucose
B) Notify the provider
C) Check for ketones in urine
D) Give insulin as ordered
Correct Answer: D (Give insulin as ordered)
Rationale: Hyperglycemia requires insulin administration per provider order; oral
glucose is for hypoglycemia.
Q3. The nurse is teaching a patient about proper inhaler use. Which patient
statement indicates correct understanding?
A) "I will shake the inhaler before each use."
B) "I will hold my breath for 5 seconds after inhaling."
C) "I will rinse my mouth after using a corticosteroid inhaler."
D) "All of the above."
Correct Answer: D (All of the above)
Rationale: Shaking ensures proper dose, holding breath improves deposition, and
rinsing prevents oral thrush with corticosteroids.
Q4. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid
resuscitation in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A) Heart rate
B) Blood pressure
C) Urine output
D) Capillary refill time
2|Page
,Correct Answer: C (Urine output)
Rationale: Urine output ≥0.5 mL/kg/hr reflects adequate kidney perfusion and
fluid volume status.
Q5. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. The nurse notes the patient has
developed hives and itching. What is the first action?
A) Stop the transfusion
B) Slow the transfusion rate
C) Administer diphenhydramine
D) Notify the provider
Correct Answer: A (Stop the transfusion)
Rationale: This is a possible allergic reaction; stopping the transfusion is the
priority before any other intervention.
Q6. The nurse is preparing to administer a liquid medication through a nasogastric
tube. Which action is correct?
A) Administer the medication at room temperature
B) Flush the tube with 50 mL of water before and after medication
C) Crush tablets and mix with water
D) Give the medication immediately after checking tube placement
Correct Answer: D (Give the medication immediately after checking tube
placement)
Rationale: Confirm tube placement before each administration. Flushing before
and after (30 mL is typical, not 50 mL) is also correct but the priority step is
verifying placement.
3|Page
, Q7. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
A) Family history
B) Age over 55
C) Hypertension
D) Male gender
Correct Answer: C (Hypertension)
Rationale: Hypertension can be controlled through lifestyle and medication;
family history, age, and gender are non-modifiable.
Q8. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
A) Blood pressure
B) Cardiac rhythm
C) Lung sounds
D) Bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B (Cardiac rhythm)
Rationale: Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias; a cardiac
monitor should be applied immediately.
Q9. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving morphine via patient-controlled
analgesia (PCA). Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
A) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
B) Pain score of 3/10
C) Nausea without vomiting
D) Sedation score of 1 (awake and alert)
Correct Answer: A (Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min)
4|Page
