HESI ADULT HEALTH EXAM 2026-
2027 – FULL PRACTICE TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES/GRADED
A+/2026 UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Cardiovascular Disorders
1. A nurse assesses a client with heart failure who has crackles in both lung
bases, jugular vein distension, and 3+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
Which priority intervention should the nurse implement first?
• A. Administer furosemide IV push
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
• C. Restrict oral fluids to 1500 mL/day
• D. Apply sequential compression devices
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position reduces preload and venous return, decreasing
pulmonary congestion before administering diuretics. Airway and breathing come
first.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban (Eliquis). Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
• A. “I will need monthly INR checks.”
• B. “I should report any unusual bruising or dark stools.”
, • C. “This medication dissolves the clot in my heart.”
• D. “I can take aspirin for headaches with this drug.”
Rationale: Apixaban (DOAC) increases bleeding risk; unusual bruising or melena
indicates possible hemorrhage. INR monitoring is for warfarin, not DOACs.
3. A client post-cardiac catheterization via femoral artery reports severe back
pain and a heart rate of 50 bpm. What should the nurse do first?
• A. Administer IV morphine sulfate
• B. Increase IV fluids
• C. Palpate the femoral access site and assess for retroperitoneal bleeding
• D. Apply warm compresses to the back
Rationale: Bradycardia and back pain after femoral cath suggest retroperitoneal
bleeding. Immediate assessment and notification of provider are critical.
4. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect in a client with acute
decompensated heart failure?
• A. BNP 1200 pg/mL
• B. Troponin I 0.02 ng/mL
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: BNP > 500 pg/mL indicates heart failure. Elevated BNP differentiates
cardiac from respiratory dyspnea.
5. A client with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which finding requires
immediate action?
• A. Dry cough
• B. Serum potassium 4.1 mEq/L
• C. Angioedema (swollen lips and tongue)
• D. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
, Rationale: Angioedema is a life-threatening ACE inhibitor reaction causing airway
compromise. Discontinue drug and call rapid response.
Respiratory Disorders
6. A nurse cares for a client with COPD who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on
2 L nasal cannula. Which action is most appropriate?
• A. Increase oxygen to 4 L via nasal cannula
• B. Titrate oxygen to maintain SpO2 88-92%
• C. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 10 L
• D. Prepare for intubation
Rationale: COPD clients rely on hypoxic drive; target SpO2 88-92% to avoid
hypercapnia. Increasing O2 excessively can depress respiratory drive.
7. A client with pneumonia has a fever of 39.2°C (102.6°F), heart rate 110 bpm,
respiratory rate 28, and blood pressure 90/60. Which intervention takes
priority?
• A. Collect sputum culture
• B. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics after blood cultures
• C. Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally
• D. Position client supine for chest x-ray
Rationale: Sepsis from pneumonia requires antibiotics within 1 hour after cultures.
Fever and hypotension suggest septic shock.
8. A client with a tracheostomy tube has thick, tenacious secretions. Which
intervention is most effective?
• A. Suction every 30 minutes
• B. Instill 5 mL normal saline before suctioning
• C. Administer nebulized hypertonic saline
• D. Deflate the cuff for coughing
2027 – FULL PRACTICE TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES/GRADED
A+/2026 UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Cardiovascular Disorders
1. A nurse assesses a client with heart failure who has crackles in both lung
bases, jugular vein distension, and 3+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
Which priority intervention should the nurse implement first?
• A. Administer furosemide IV push
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
• C. Restrict oral fluids to 1500 mL/day
• D. Apply sequential compression devices
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position reduces preload and venous return, decreasing
pulmonary congestion before administering diuretics. Airway and breathing come
first.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban (Eliquis). Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
• A. “I will need monthly INR checks.”
• B. “I should report any unusual bruising or dark stools.”
, • C. “This medication dissolves the clot in my heart.”
• D. “I can take aspirin for headaches with this drug.”
Rationale: Apixaban (DOAC) increases bleeding risk; unusual bruising or melena
indicates possible hemorrhage. INR monitoring is for warfarin, not DOACs.
3. A client post-cardiac catheterization via femoral artery reports severe back
pain and a heart rate of 50 bpm. What should the nurse do first?
• A. Administer IV morphine sulfate
• B. Increase IV fluids
• C. Palpate the femoral access site and assess for retroperitoneal bleeding
• D. Apply warm compresses to the back
Rationale: Bradycardia and back pain after femoral cath suggest retroperitoneal
bleeding. Immediate assessment and notification of provider are critical.
4. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect in a client with acute
decompensated heart failure?
• A. BNP 1200 pg/mL
• B. Troponin I 0.02 ng/mL
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: BNP > 500 pg/mL indicates heart failure. Elevated BNP differentiates
cardiac from respiratory dyspnea.
5. A client with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which finding requires
immediate action?
• A. Dry cough
• B. Serum potassium 4.1 mEq/L
• C. Angioedema (swollen lips and tongue)
• D. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
, Rationale: Angioedema is a life-threatening ACE inhibitor reaction causing airway
compromise. Discontinue drug and call rapid response.
Respiratory Disorders
6. A nurse cares for a client with COPD who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on
2 L nasal cannula. Which action is most appropriate?
• A. Increase oxygen to 4 L via nasal cannula
• B. Titrate oxygen to maintain SpO2 88-92%
• C. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 10 L
• D. Prepare for intubation
Rationale: COPD clients rely on hypoxic drive; target SpO2 88-92% to avoid
hypercapnia. Increasing O2 excessively can depress respiratory drive.
7. A client with pneumonia has a fever of 39.2°C (102.6°F), heart rate 110 bpm,
respiratory rate 28, and blood pressure 90/60. Which intervention takes
priority?
• A. Collect sputum culture
• B. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics after blood cultures
• C. Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally
• D. Position client supine for chest x-ray
Rationale: Sepsis from pneumonia requires antibiotics within 1 hour after cultures.
Fever and hypotension suggest septic shock.
8. A client with a tracheostomy tube has thick, tenacious secretions. Which
intervention is most effective?
• A. Suction every 30 minutes
• B. Instill 5 mL normal saline before suctioning
• C. Administer nebulized hypertonic saline
• D. Deflate the cuff for coughing
