Updated ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam
with NGN 180 Questions 100% Verified Answers and
Rationales to Pass 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam 2026
5viewing now
Fundamentals & Basic Care
Q1. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion of packed red blood
cells. Which action is correct?
A. Use a 20-gauge or larger IV catheter
B. Administer the blood with lactated Ringer's solution
C. Start the transfusion within 2 hours of removing from refrigeration
D. Complete the transfusion within 6 hours
Answer: A. Use a 20-gauge or larger IV catheter
Rationale: A 20-gauge or larger IV catheter prevents hemolysis of RBCs during
transfusion. Only normal saline is compatible (not lactated Ringer's, B). Blood
should be started within 30 minutes of leaving refrigeration (C) and completed
within 4 hours (D) to prevent bacterial growth.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to underwater seal drainage.
Which finding requires immediate action?
A. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour
Answer: C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak that
requires immediate investigation. Continuous bubbling in suction control (A) is
expected. Tidaling (B) is normal respiratory fluctuation. Drainage up to 100 mL/hr
initially (D) is acceptable.
,Q3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a stroke with left-
sided weakness. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will dress my left side first when getting dressed"
B. "I will dress my right side first when getting dressed"
C. "I will use a walker on my left side"
D. "I will avoid using a cane"
Answer: A. "I will dress my left side first when getting dressed"
Rationale: Dress the affected side first (then the unaffected side) when putting
on clothing. Remove clothing from the unaffected side first. A walker or cane
should be used on the unaffected (strong) side (C).
Q4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new above-knee amputation. Which
intervention is most important to prevent contractures?
A. Elevate the residual limb on a pillow
B. Position the client prone for 15-30 minutes several times per day
C. Keep the client supine with the hip flexed
D. Apply a warm compress to the stump
Answer: B. Position the client prone for 15-30 minutes several times per day
Rationale: Prone positioning helps prevent hip flexion contractures. Elevating the
residual limb on a pillow (A) actually promotes flexion contracture. The hip should
be extended (not flexed, C).
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which
finding requires immediate action?
A. Heart rate of 72 bpm
B. Hiccups
C. Small amount of bruising at the insertion site
D. Pain at the insertion site
Answer: B. Hiccups
Rationale: Hiccups after pacemaker placement may indicate lead perforation or
,diaphragmatic stimulation, requiring immediate provider notification. Bruising (C)
and pain (D) are expected. HR 72 (A) is normal.
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client with an ileostomy. Which statement by the
client indicates understanding of dietary management?
A. "I will need to eat high-fiber foods to thicken my output"
B. "I will need to drink extra fluids to prevent dehydration"
C. "I can stop taking my stoma medications"
D. "I will change my appliance once a week only"
Answer: B. "I will need to drink extra fluids to prevent dehydration"
Rationale: Ileostomy output is liquid and contains water and
electrolytes. Increased fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Appliance
changes are every 3-7 days (D), but more often if leaking.
Pharmacology
Q7. A client is prescribed apixaban (Eliquis) for atrial fibrillation. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. Bruising after a fall
B. Hemoglobin drop from 13 to 8 g/dL
C. Mild headache
D. Occasional nosebleed
Answer: B. Hemoglobin drop from 13 to 8 g/dL
Rationale: A 5-point hemoglobin drop suggests occult bleeding (GI bleed,
retroperitoneal bleed) requiring immediate reporting. Bruising (A) and mild
nosebleeds (D) are common side effects.
Q8. A client is prescribed latanoprost (Xalatan) eye drops for glaucoma. Which
instruction is correct?
A. "Apply the drops once daily at bedtime"
B. "Apply the drops four times daily"
, C. "Store the bottle in the refrigerator"
D. "This medication will cure your glaucoma"
Answer: A. "Apply the drops once daily at bedtime"
Rationale: Latanoprost (prostaglandin analog) is applied once daily at bedtime. It
lowers intraocular pressure but does NOT cure glaucoma (D). It can cause eyelash
growth and iris darkening.
Q9. A client is prescribed tizanidine (Zanaflex) for muscle spasticity. Which
finding should be reported?
A. Drowsiness
B. Dry mouth
C. Hypotension (dizziness upon standing)
D. Weakness
Answer: C. Hypotension (dizziness upon standing)
Rationale: Tizanidine causes hypotension, especially with concurrent
antihypertensives. Report significant dizziness or syncope. Drowsiness (A), dry
mouth (B), and weakness (D) are common but not emergent.
Q10. A client is prescribed lacosamide (Vimpat) for partial seizures. Which
finding requires immediate action?
A. Nausea
B. Dizziness
C. PR interval prolongation on ECG
D. Headache
Answer: C. PR interval prolongation on ECG
Rationale: Lacosamide can cause PR interval prolongation and heart block,
especially in patients with conduction abnormalities. Nausea (A), dizziness (B),
and headache (D) are common side effects.
Q11. A client is prescribed dapagliflozin (Farxiga) for type 2 diabetes. The client
reports nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain with a blood glucose of 210
with NGN 180 Questions 100% Verified Answers and
Rationales to Pass 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam 2026
5viewing now
Fundamentals & Basic Care
Q1. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion of packed red blood
cells. Which action is correct?
A. Use a 20-gauge or larger IV catheter
B. Administer the blood with lactated Ringer's solution
C. Start the transfusion within 2 hours of removing from refrigeration
D. Complete the transfusion within 6 hours
Answer: A. Use a 20-gauge or larger IV catheter
Rationale: A 20-gauge or larger IV catheter prevents hemolysis of RBCs during
transfusion. Only normal saline is compatible (not lactated Ringer's, B). Blood
should be started within 30 minutes of leaving refrigeration (C) and completed
within 4 hours (D) to prevent bacterial growth.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to underwater seal drainage.
Which finding requires immediate action?
A. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour
Answer: C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak that
requires immediate investigation. Continuous bubbling in suction control (A) is
expected. Tidaling (B) is normal respiratory fluctuation. Drainage up to 100 mL/hr
initially (D) is acceptable.
,Q3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a stroke with left-
sided weakness. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will dress my left side first when getting dressed"
B. "I will dress my right side first when getting dressed"
C. "I will use a walker on my left side"
D. "I will avoid using a cane"
Answer: A. "I will dress my left side first when getting dressed"
Rationale: Dress the affected side first (then the unaffected side) when putting
on clothing. Remove clothing from the unaffected side first. A walker or cane
should be used on the unaffected (strong) side (C).
Q4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new above-knee amputation. Which
intervention is most important to prevent contractures?
A. Elevate the residual limb on a pillow
B. Position the client prone for 15-30 minutes several times per day
C. Keep the client supine with the hip flexed
D. Apply a warm compress to the stump
Answer: B. Position the client prone for 15-30 minutes several times per day
Rationale: Prone positioning helps prevent hip flexion contractures. Elevating the
residual limb on a pillow (A) actually promotes flexion contracture. The hip should
be extended (not flexed, C).
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which
finding requires immediate action?
A. Heart rate of 72 bpm
B. Hiccups
C. Small amount of bruising at the insertion site
D. Pain at the insertion site
Answer: B. Hiccups
Rationale: Hiccups after pacemaker placement may indicate lead perforation or
,diaphragmatic stimulation, requiring immediate provider notification. Bruising (C)
and pain (D) are expected. HR 72 (A) is normal.
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client with an ileostomy. Which statement by the
client indicates understanding of dietary management?
A. "I will need to eat high-fiber foods to thicken my output"
B. "I will need to drink extra fluids to prevent dehydration"
C. "I can stop taking my stoma medications"
D. "I will change my appliance once a week only"
Answer: B. "I will need to drink extra fluids to prevent dehydration"
Rationale: Ileostomy output is liquid and contains water and
electrolytes. Increased fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Appliance
changes are every 3-7 days (D), but more often if leaking.
Pharmacology
Q7. A client is prescribed apixaban (Eliquis) for atrial fibrillation. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. Bruising after a fall
B. Hemoglobin drop from 13 to 8 g/dL
C. Mild headache
D. Occasional nosebleed
Answer: B. Hemoglobin drop from 13 to 8 g/dL
Rationale: A 5-point hemoglobin drop suggests occult bleeding (GI bleed,
retroperitoneal bleed) requiring immediate reporting. Bruising (A) and mild
nosebleeds (D) are common side effects.
Q8. A client is prescribed latanoprost (Xalatan) eye drops for glaucoma. Which
instruction is correct?
A. "Apply the drops once daily at bedtime"
B. "Apply the drops four times daily"
, C. "Store the bottle in the refrigerator"
D. "This medication will cure your glaucoma"
Answer: A. "Apply the drops once daily at bedtime"
Rationale: Latanoprost (prostaglandin analog) is applied once daily at bedtime. It
lowers intraocular pressure but does NOT cure glaucoma (D). It can cause eyelash
growth and iris darkening.
Q9. A client is prescribed tizanidine (Zanaflex) for muscle spasticity. Which
finding should be reported?
A. Drowsiness
B. Dry mouth
C. Hypotension (dizziness upon standing)
D. Weakness
Answer: C. Hypotension (dizziness upon standing)
Rationale: Tizanidine causes hypotension, especially with concurrent
antihypertensives. Report significant dizziness or syncope. Drowsiness (A), dry
mouth (B), and weakness (D) are common but not emergent.
Q10. A client is prescribed lacosamide (Vimpat) for partial seizures. Which
finding requires immediate action?
A. Nausea
B. Dizziness
C. PR interval prolongation on ECG
D. Headache
Answer: C. PR interval prolongation on ECG
Rationale: Lacosamide can cause PR interval prolongation and heart block,
especially in patients with conduction abnormalities. Nausea (A), dizziness (B),
and headache (D) are common side effects.
Q11. A client is prescribed dapagliflozin (Farxiga) for type 2 diabetes. The client
reports nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain with a blood glucose of 210
