NR507 Week 8 Final Exam 2026 NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Complete Question 1-100 (Actual Exam
Proctored via Examplify) With Correct Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
Cellular Adaptation, Injury & Neoplasia (1–10)
Question 1
A patient's biopsy shows cells of varying size and shape with hyperchromatic
nuclei. This finding is most consistent with:
A) Metaplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Atrophy
Answer: B – Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by disordered cellular growth with variation
in cell size (anisocytosis), shape (poikilocytosis), and nuclear abnormalities
(hyperchromasia). It is often a premalignant change.
Question 2
Which type of necrosis is classically seen in tuberculosis?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
Answer: C – Caseous necrosis
Rationale: Caseous necrosis is a form of coagulative necrosis with a cheese-like,
friable appearance, characteristic of tuberculosis and certain fungal infections. It
is surrounded by granulomatous inflammation.
,Question 3
An oncogene is best described as a:
A) Tumor suppressor gene that inhibits cell division
B) Mutated proto-oncogene that promotes uncontrolled cell growth
C) Gene that repairs DNA damage
D) Gene that induces apoptosis
Answer: B – Mutated proto-oncogene that promotes uncontrolled cell growth
Rationale: Proto-oncogenes normally promote controlled cell growth. When
mutated, they become oncogenes that drive uncontrolled proliferation. Tumor
suppressors (e.g., p53, RB) normally inhibit growth.
Question 4
Hypoxia most immediately leads to:
A) Increased oxidative phosphorylation
B) Decreased ATP production with increased anaerobic glycolysis
C) Increased fatty acid oxidation
D) Decreased lactate production
Answer: B – Decreased ATP production with increased anaerobic glycolysis
Rationale: Hypoxia impairs oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria, decreasing
ATP. Cells shift to anaerobic glycolysis, producing lactate and depleting glycogen
stores. This leads to cellular swelling and injury.
Question 5
A patient with chronic hepatitis B develops hepatocellular carcinoma. The
mechanism is:
A) Direct viral oncogene insertion
B) Chronic inflammation with cirrhosis and DNA damage
C) Immune-mediated destruction of hepatocytes only
D) Hormonal stimulation
Answer: B – Chronic inflammation with cirrhosis and DNA damage
Rationale: Chronic HBV infection causes repeated cycles of hepatocyte injury,
,inflammation, regeneration, and fibrosis (cirrhosis), increasing risk of DNA
mutations and HCC. Some viral proteins also directly affect cell cycle regulation.
Question 6
Which cellular adaptation is irreversible and leads to cell death if the stimulus
persists?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Answer: D – Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is disorganized growth that may progress to carcinoma in
situ and invasive cancer if the causative agent persists. Hyperplasia, hypertrophy,
and metaplasia are generally reversible adaptations.
Question 7
Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis:
A) Elicits an inflammatory response
B) Is unregulated and passive
C) Is energy-dependent and eliminates single cells without inflammation
D) Occurs only in response to severe injury
Answer: C – Is energy-dependent and eliminates single cells without
inflammation
Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process requiring ATP. Cell
membranes remain intact, and apoptotic bodies are phagocytosed without
releasing cellular contents, so no inflammation occurs.
Question 8
A nevus (mole) is an example of a:
A) Malignant neoplasm
B) Benign neoplasm of melanocytes
, C) Hamartoma
D) Teratoma
Answer: B – Benign neoplasm of melanocytes
Rationale: A nevus is a benign proliferation of melanocytes. Malignant
transformation leads to melanoma. Hamartomas are disorganized but benign
overgrowths of native tissue; teratomas contain multiple germ layers.
Question 9
A patient with a BRCA1 mutation is at increased risk for:
A) Lung cancer and mesothelioma
B) Breast and ovarian cancer
C) Colon and rectal cancer
D) Pancreatic and gastric cancer
Answer: B – Breast and ovarian cancer
Rationale: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. Germline
mutations increase risk of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome. BRCA2
also increases breast, ovarian, pancreatic, and prostate cancer risk.
Question 10
Free radical-induced cell injury is implicated in all the following EXCEPT:
A) Reperfusion injury after myocardial infarction
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Parkinson's disease
Answer: C – Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Free radicals cause oxidative damage in reperfusion injury,
atherosclerosis, neurodegenerative diseases (Parkinson's, Alzheimer's), and aging.
Iron deficiency anemia is caused by lack of iron for hemoglobin synthesis.
Immunity & Hypersensitivity (11–20)
Pathophysiology Complete Question 1-100 (Actual Exam
Proctored via Examplify) With Correct Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
Cellular Adaptation, Injury & Neoplasia (1–10)
Question 1
A patient's biopsy shows cells of varying size and shape with hyperchromatic
nuclei. This finding is most consistent with:
A) Metaplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Atrophy
Answer: B – Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by disordered cellular growth with variation
in cell size (anisocytosis), shape (poikilocytosis), and nuclear abnormalities
(hyperchromasia). It is often a premalignant change.
Question 2
Which type of necrosis is classically seen in tuberculosis?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
Answer: C – Caseous necrosis
Rationale: Caseous necrosis is a form of coagulative necrosis with a cheese-like,
friable appearance, characteristic of tuberculosis and certain fungal infections. It
is surrounded by granulomatous inflammation.
,Question 3
An oncogene is best described as a:
A) Tumor suppressor gene that inhibits cell division
B) Mutated proto-oncogene that promotes uncontrolled cell growth
C) Gene that repairs DNA damage
D) Gene that induces apoptosis
Answer: B – Mutated proto-oncogene that promotes uncontrolled cell growth
Rationale: Proto-oncogenes normally promote controlled cell growth. When
mutated, they become oncogenes that drive uncontrolled proliferation. Tumor
suppressors (e.g., p53, RB) normally inhibit growth.
Question 4
Hypoxia most immediately leads to:
A) Increased oxidative phosphorylation
B) Decreased ATP production with increased anaerobic glycolysis
C) Increased fatty acid oxidation
D) Decreased lactate production
Answer: B – Decreased ATP production with increased anaerobic glycolysis
Rationale: Hypoxia impairs oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria, decreasing
ATP. Cells shift to anaerobic glycolysis, producing lactate and depleting glycogen
stores. This leads to cellular swelling and injury.
Question 5
A patient with chronic hepatitis B develops hepatocellular carcinoma. The
mechanism is:
A) Direct viral oncogene insertion
B) Chronic inflammation with cirrhosis and DNA damage
C) Immune-mediated destruction of hepatocytes only
D) Hormonal stimulation
Answer: B – Chronic inflammation with cirrhosis and DNA damage
Rationale: Chronic HBV infection causes repeated cycles of hepatocyte injury,
,inflammation, regeneration, and fibrosis (cirrhosis), increasing risk of DNA
mutations and HCC. Some viral proteins also directly affect cell cycle regulation.
Question 6
Which cellular adaptation is irreversible and leads to cell death if the stimulus
persists?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Answer: D – Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is disorganized growth that may progress to carcinoma in
situ and invasive cancer if the causative agent persists. Hyperplasia, hypertrophy,
and metaplasia are generally reversible adaptations.
Question 7
Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis:
A) Elicits an inflammatory response
B) Is unregulated and passive
C) Is energy-dependent and eliminates single cells without inflammation
D) Occurs only in response to severe injury
Answer: C – Is energy-dependent and eliminates single cells without
inflammation
Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process requiring ATP. Cell
membranes remain intact, and apoptotic bodies are phagocytosed without
releasing cellular contents, so no inflammation occurs.
Question 8
A nevus (mole) is an example of a:
A) Malignant neoplasm
B) Benign neoplasm of melanocytes
, C) Hamartoma
D) Teratoma
Answer: B – Benign neoplasm of melanocytes
Rationale: A nevus is a benign proliferation of melanocytes. Malignant
transformation leads to melanoma. Hamartomas are disorganized but benign
overgrowths of native tissue; teratomas contain multiple germ layers.
Question 9
A patient with a BRCA1 mutation is at increased risk for:
A) Lung cancer and mesothelioma
B) Breast and ovarian cancer
C) Colon and rectal cancer
D) Pancreatic and gastric cancer
Answer: B – Breast and ovarian cancer
Rationale: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. Germline
mutations increase risk of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome. BRCA2
also increases breast, ovarian, pancreatic, and prostate cancer risk.
Question 10
Free radical-induced cell injury is implicated in all the following EXCEPT:
A) Reperfusion injury after myocardial infarction
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Parkinson's disease
Answer: C – Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Free radicals cause oxidative damage in reperfusion injury,
atherosclerosis, neurodegenerative diseases (Parkinson's, Alzheimer's), and aging.
Iron deficiency anemia is caused by lack of iron for hemoglobin synthesis.
Immunity & Hypersensitivity (11–20)
