Answers | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor and NCLEX Readiness Study
Guide with Verified Solutions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical Nursing,
Pharmacology, Fundamentals of Nursing, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric
Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and Management, Community Health
Nursing, Prioritization, Delegation, Patient Safety, NGN Clinical Judgment Case
Studies and NCLEX-RN Preparation
Question 1: Normal adult heart rate? A. 40-50 B. 60-100 C. 100-120 D. 120-150
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 60-100 Rationale: Normal resting heart rate is 60 to 100 bpm.
Question 2: Normal adult blood pressure? A. <120/<80 B. 120-129/<80 C. 130-139/80-
89 D. >140/>90 CORRECT ANSWER: A. <120/<80 Rationale: Normal BP is less than
120 systolic and less than 80 diastolic.
Question 3: Normal adult respiratory rate? A. 8-12 B. 12-20 C. 20-28 D. 28-36
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 12-20 Rationale: Normal adult respiratory rate is 12 to 20
breaths per minute.
Question 4: Normal adult oral temperature? A. 35.0 C B. 37.0 C C. 38.5 C D. 39.5 C
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 37.0 C Rationale: Normal oral temperature is approximately 37
degrees Celsius (98.6 F).
Question 5: Normal SpO2 level? A. 80-85% B. 86-90% C. 91-94% D. 95-100%
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 95-100% Rationale: Normal oxygen saturation is 95% to 100%.
Question 6: Proper hand hygiene duration? A. 1-2 seconds B. 5-7 seconds C. 15-20
seconds D. 60-90 seconds CORRECT ANSWER: C. 15-20 seconds Rationale: Hands
should be washed for at least 15 to 20 seconds.
Question 7: First PPE item to remove? A. Mask B. Gown C. Gloves D. Goggles
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Gloves Rationale: Gloves are the most contaminated and
should be removed first.
Question 8: Last PPE item to remove? A. Mask B. Gown C. Gloves D. Hand hygiene
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Hand hygiene Rationale: Hand hygiene is always performed
last after removing all PPE.
Question 9: Fall risk assessment tool? A. APGAR B. Morse C. Glasgow D. Apgar
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Morse Rationale: The Morse Fall Scale is used to assess a
patient's fall risk.
Question 10: Priority for seizure patient? A. Restrain limbs B. Insert tongue depressor
C. Protect head D. Give oral water CORRECT ANSWER: C. Protect head Rationale:
Protecting the patient's head from injury is the priority during a seizure.
Question 11: Isolation for TB? A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Standard CORRECT
ANSWER: C. Airborne Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions,
including an N95 respirator.
,Question 12: Isolation for MRSA? A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Neutropenic
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Contact Rationale: MRSA requires contact precautions,
including gown and gloves.
Question 13: Isolation for Influenza? A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Standard
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Droplet Rationale: Influenza requires droplet precautions,
including a surgical mask.
Question 14: Proper lifting technique? A. Bend at waist B. Keep load far from body C.
Bend knees, keep back straight D. Twist while lifting CORRECT ANSWER: C. Bend
knees, keep back straight Rationale: Bending the knees and keeping the back straight
prevents injury.
Question 15: Bed height for patient care? A. Highest position B. Lowest position C.
Mid position D. Any position CORRECT ANSWER: B. Lowest position Rationale: The
bed should be in the lowest position to prevent falls.
Question 16: Wheelchair transfer brake status? A. Locked B. Unlocked C. Depends
on patient D. Only one locked CORRECT ANSWER: A. Locked Rationale: Wheelchair
brakes must be locked during transfers for safety.
Question 17: Dysphagia diet position? A. Supine B. Prone C. High Fowler's D.
Trendelenburg CORRECT ANSWER: C. High Fowler's Rationale: High Fowler's position
prevents aspiration during feeding.
Question 18: Clear liquid diet example? A. Milkshake B. Apple juice C. Pudding D.
Mashed potatoes CORRECT ANSWER: B. Apple juice Rationale: Apple juice is
transparent and seen through, fitting clear liquids.
Question 19: Full liquid diet example? A. Toast B. Ice cream C. Steak D. Rice
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ice cream Rationale: Ice cream melts to a liquid state at room
temperature.
Question 20: Nasogastric tube verification? A. Auscultate air B. X-ray C. Aspirate color
D. Patient speech CORRECT ANSWER: B. X-ray Rationale: X-ray is the gold standard
for verifying NG tube placement.
Question 21: Normal urine output per hour? A. 10 mL B. 30 mL C. 60 mL D. 100 mL
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 30 mL Rationale: Minimum normal urine output is 30 mL per
hour.
Question 22: Straining urine purpose? A. Measure volume B. Check for stones C. Test
pH D. Check color CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check for stones Rationale: Straining urine
captures calculi for analysis.
Question 23: Indwelling catheter bag position? A. Above bladder B. At bladder level C.
Below bladder D. On the bed CORRECT ANSWER: C. Below bladder Rationale:
Keeping the bag below the bladder prevents urine reflux.
, Question 24: Enema position? A. Supine B. Left Sims' C. Prone D. Right lateral
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Left Sims' Rationale: Left Sims' position follows the natural
curve of the colon.
Question 25: Oxygen delivery for COPD? A. High flow mask B. Non-rebreather C. Low
flow nasal cannula D. Venturi mask 100% CORRECT ANSWER: C. Low flow nasal
cannula Rationale: Low flow prevents suppressing the hypoxic drive in COPD.
Question 26: Incentive spirometry purpose? A. Clear secretions B. Prevent
atelectasis C. Measure lung volume D. Oxygenate blood CORRECT ANSWER: B.
Prevent atelectasis Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes lung expansion to
prevent atelectasis.
Question 27: Suctioning max duration? A. 5 seconds B. 10-15 seconds C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10-15 seconds Rationale: Suctioning should not
exceed 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia.
Question 28: Cane walking sequence? A. Weaker leg, cane, stronger leg B. Cane,
weaker leg, stronger leg C. Stronger leg, cane, weaker leg D. Cane, stronger leg, weaker
leg CORRECT ANSWER: B. Cane, weaker leg, stronger leg Rationale: The cane moves
first, followed by the weaker leg, then the stronger leg.
Question 29: Crutch walking 3-point gait? A. Both crutches, then affected leg B. One
crutch, then affected leg C. Both crutches, then unaffected leg D. Unaffected leg, then
crutches CORRECT ANSWER: A. Both crutches, then affected leg Rationale: 3-point
gait is for non-weight bearing on one leg.
Question 30: Pressure ulcer stage 1 sign? A. Full thickness loss B. Non-blanchable
erythema C. Slough present D. Bone exposed CORRECT ANSWER: B. Non-blanchable
erythema Rationale: Stage 1 presents as intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
Question 31: Braden scale assesses? A. Pain level B. Fall risk C. Pressure ulcer risk D.
Nutritional status CORRECT ANSWER: C. Pressure ulcer risk Rationale: The Braden
Scale predicts pressure sore risk.
Question 32: Wound dehiscence definition? A. Infection of wound B. Separation of
wound layers C. Protrusion of organs D. Excess granulation CORRECT ANSWER: B.
Separation of wound layers Rationale: Dehiscence is the partial or total separation of
wound layers.
Question 33: Evisceration priority? A. Push organs back B. Cover with sterile saline
dressing C. Apply pressure D. Leave exposed CORRECT ANSWER: B. Cover with sterile
saline dressing Rationale: Covering eviscerated organs with sterile saline prevents
drying.
Question 34: Insulin injection site absorption fastest? A. Thigh B. Arm C. Abdomen D.
Buttock CORRECT ANSWER: C. Abdomen Rationale: The abdomen has the fastest
and most consistent absorption rate.