FORTIS COLLEGE NUR100 HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM V1
(2026/2027) – 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | ACTUAL EXAM
TEST BANK WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS & DETAILED RATIONALES |
COMPLETE HESI SUCCESS STUDY GUIDE
1 A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
a. Heart rate of 62 bpm
b. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
c. Yellow-green halos around lights
d. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Yellow-green halos (visual disturbances) are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity. Other signs include nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and arrhythmias.
2 A client is started on lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
a. Dry cough
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Angioedema
d. All of the above
- Correct Answer- D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause dry cough (bradykinin
accumulation), hyperkalemia (reduced aldosterone), and angioedema.
3 A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which instruction is most
important?
a. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset
1
,b. Monitor for weight gain
c. Take on an empty stomach
d. Expect immediate blood glucose control
- Correct Answer- A
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI side effects; taking with food reduces
nausea and diarrhea.
4 A client is prescribed warfarin. The INR is 5.5. The client has no bleeding. What
is the appropriate action?
a. Administer vitamin K 10 mg IV
b. Hold the next dose and notify the provider
c. Increase the dose
d. Continue current dose
- Correct Answer- B
Rationale: For INR 4.5-6.0 without bleeding, hold warfarin and notify provider;
vitamin K is not typically needed unless INR >10 or bleeding.
5 Which medication is a loop diuretic?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Spironolactone
c. Furosemide
d. Metolazone
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic; hydrochlorothiazide is thiazide;
spironolactone is potassium-sparing; metolazone is thiazide-like.
2
,6 A client taking albuterol reports tremors and palpitations. What is the nurse's
best response?
a. "This is an allergic reaction; stop the medication."
b. "These are common side effects that often decrease with continued use."
c. "You need to go to the emergency department immediately."
d. "Take double the next dose to see if symptoms improve."
- Correct Answer- B
Rationale: Tremors and palpitations are common beta-2 agonist side effects (due
to beta-1 stimulation) and often diminish with continued use.
7 A client is prescribed fentanyl patches for chronic pain. Which instruction is
essential?
a. Apply heat to the patch to increase absorption
b. Cut the patch if a lower dose is needed
c. Avoid exposing the patch to heat sources (heating pads, hot tubs)
d. Change the patch every 24 hours
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Heat increases fentanyl absorption, risking overdose. Patches should
never be cut. They are changed every 72 hours (48-72 depending on brand).
8 A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which lab value must be
closely monitored?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium
3
, - Correct Answer- B
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; hyperkalemia is a significant risk.
9 A client receives IV morphine for acute pain. The nurse notes respiratory rate of
8 breaths per minute. Which medication should be available?
a. Naloxone
b. Flumazenil
c. Epinephrine
d. Atropine
- Correct Answer- A
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory
depression from morphine.
10 A client is prescribed levothyroxine. When should the nurse instruct the client
to take this medication?
a. With food
b. At bedtime with a snack
c. In the morning on an empty stomach, 30-60 minutes before breakfast
d. With dairy products
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach; food and other
medications can interfere with absorption.
11 A client taking clopidogrel is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should instruct
the client to stop the medication how many days before surgery?
a. 1 day
4
(2026/2027) – 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | ACTUAL EXAM
TEST BANK WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS & DETAILED RATIONALES |
COMPLETE HESI SUCCESS STUDY GUIDE
1 A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
a. Heart rate of 62 bpm
b. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
c. Yellow-green halos around lights
d. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Yellow-green halos (visual disturbances) are classic signs of digoxin
toxicity. Other signs include nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and arrhythmias.
2 A client is started on lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
a. Dry cough
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Angioedema
d. All of the above
- Correct Answer- D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause dry cough (bradykinin
accumulation), hyperkalemia (reduced aldosterone), and angioedema.
3 A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which instruction is most
important?
a. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset
1
,b. Monitor for weight gain
c. Take on an empty stomach
d. Expect immediate blood glucose control
- Correct Answer- A
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI side effects; taking with food reduces
nausea and diarrhea.
4 A client is prescribed warfarin. The INR is 5.5. The client has no bleeding. What
is the appropriate action?
a. Administer vitamin K 10 mg IV
b. Hold the next dose and notify the provider
c. Increase the dose
d. Continue current dose
- Correct Answer- B
Rationale: For INR 4.5-6.0 without bleeding, hold warfarin and notify provider;
vitamin K is not typically needed unless INR >10 or bleeding.
5 Which medication is a loop diuretic?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Spironolactone
c. Furosemide
d. Metolazone
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic; hydrochlorothiazide is thiazide;
spironolactone is potassium-sparing; metolazone is thiazide-like.
2
,6 A client taking albuterol reports tremors and palpitations. What is the nurse's
best response?
a. "This is an allergic reaction; stop the medication."
b. "These are common side effects that often decrease with continued use."
c. "You need to go to the emergency department immediately."
d. "Take double the next dose to see if symptoms improve."
- Correct Answer- B
Rationale: Tremors and palpitations are common beta-2 agonist side effects (due
to beta-1 stimulation) and often diminish with continued use.
7 A client is prescribed fentanyl patches for chronic pain. Which instruction is
essential?
a. Apply heat to the patch to increase absorption
b. Cut the patch if a lower dose is needed
c. Avoid exposing the patch to heat sources (heating pads, hot tubs)
d. Change the patch every 24 hours
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Heat increases fentanyl absorption, risking overdose. Patches should
never be cut. They are changed every 72 hours (48-72 depending on brand).
8 A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which lab value must be
closely monitored?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium
3
, - Correct Answer- B
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; hyperkalemia is a significant risk.
9 A client receives IV morphine for acute pain. The nurse notes respiratory rate of
8 breaths per minute. Which medication should be available?
a. Naloxone
b. Flumazenil
c. Epinephrine
d. Atropine
- Correct Answer- A
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory
depression from morphine.
10 A client is prescribed levothyroxine. When should the nurse instruct the client
to take this medication?
a. With food
b. At bedtime with a snack
c. In the morning on an empty stomach, 30-60 minutes before breakfast
d. With dairy products
- Correct Answer- C
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach; food and other
medications can interfere with absorption.
11 A client taking clopidogrel is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should instruct
the client to stop the medication how many days before surgery?
a. 1 day
4
