Virtual ATI Green Light Comprehensive Predictor Practice
Questions and Answers Updated 2026 | Complete ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Study Guide with Verified Questions,
Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology,
Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Fundamentals,
Leadership & Management, Community Health & NGN NCLEX-RN
Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating
room. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
A. Assess the surgical dressing for drainage.
B. Assess the client's airway and respiratory status.
C. Check the client's pain level on a 0 to 10 scale.
D. Monitor the client's urinary output.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client's airway and respiratory status.
Rationale: According to the ABC (airway, breathing, circulation) priority framework,
ensuring a patent airway and adequate breathing is the highest priority in the immediate
postoperative period to prevent life-threatening complications.
Question 2: A nurse is preparing to care for a client diagnosed with Clostridioides
difficile (C. diff). Which of the following infection control precautions should the
nurse implement?
A. Place the client in a negative-pressure room.
B. Wear an N95 respirator upon entering the room.
C. Wash hands with soap and water after providing care.
D. Use sterile gloves when handling the client's linens.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wash hands with soap and water after providing care.
Rationale: C. diff spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Washing
hands with soap and water is required to mechanically remove the spores and prevent
transmission.
Question 3: A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client
prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to
withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
B. Heart rate of 52/min
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Heart rate of 52/min
,Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should withhold the medication
and notify the provider if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min in an adult, as this
indicates potential digoxin toxicity.
Question 4: A client experiences sudden shortness of breath, wheezing, and facial
swelling after receiving an IV antibiotic. Which of the following medications should
the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Methylprednisolone
D. Albuterol
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Epinephrine
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic
reaction. Epinephrine is the first-line medication to reverse bronchospasm,
vasodilation, and increased capillary permeability.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is at a high risk for falls.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Keep all four side rails raised at all times.
B. Place the client's bed in the lowest position.
C. Restrict the client's fluid intake in the evening.
D. Apply a physical restraint during the night shift.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Place the client's bed in the lowest position.
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position minimizes the distance to the floor if
the client attempts to get out of bed, thereby reducing the risk of injury from a fall.
Question 6: A nurse is verifying the placement of a newly inserted nasogastric (NG)
tube. Which of the following methods is the most reliable indicator of correct
placement?
A. Auscultating a whooshing sound over the epigastrium after injecting air.
B. Measuring the pH of the aspirated gastric contents.
C. Observing the color of the aspirated fluid.
D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
Rationale: An abdominal X-ray is the gold standard and most reliable method for
confirming the initial placement of an NG tube before initiating feedings or medications.
Question 7: A client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion reports lower
back pain and chills. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
B. Administer prescribed diphenhydramine.
,C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
D. Notify the healthcare provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
Rationale: Lower back pain and chills are classic signs of an acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse must stop the transfusion immediately to prevent
further infusion of incompatible blood.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client's sacral pressure injury. The nurse notes
partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis, presenting as a
shallow open ulcer. How should the nurse stage this injury?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stage 2
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure injury is characterized by partial-thickness loss of skin
with exposed dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer or an intact serum-filled
blister.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with an IV site that is red, warm, and tender
to the touch, with a palpable cord. Which of the following interventions is
appropriate?
A. Apply a cold compress to the site.
B. Increase the IV infusion rate.
C. Remove the IV catheter and apply a warm compress.
D. Aspirate the catheter to check for blood return.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Remove the IV catheter and apply a warm compress.
Rationale: These findings indicate phlebitis. The appropriate intervention is to
discontinue the IV, remove the catheter, and apply a warm compress to promote
vasodilation and reduce inflammation.
Question 10: A nurse is applying soft wrist restraints to a confused client. Which of
the following actions is required by protocol?
A. Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed.
B. Check the client's circulation and skin integrity every 2 hours.
C. Leave the restraints on continuously for 24 hours.
D. Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check the client's circulation and skin integrity every 2
hours.
, Rationale: Restraints require frequent monitoring. The nurse must assess circulation,
sensation, movement, and skin integrity at least every 2 hours to prevent tissue damage
or nerve injury.
Question 11: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of potassium,
placing the client at high risk for hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac
dysrhythmias.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which of the following oxygen delivery methods is most
appropriate?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 8 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 24% to 28% FiO2
D. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Venturi mask at 24% to 28% FiO2
Rationale: Clients with COPD often rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe. A Venturi mask
delivers a precise, low concentration of oxygen, preventing the suppression of the
respiratory drive while correcting hypoxemia.
Question 13: A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving a continuous IV
infusion of regular insulin. Which of the following findings indicates that the
treatment is effective?
A. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL
B. Urine output of 15 mL/hr
C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
D. Presence of ketones in the urine
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL
Rationale: A decreasing blood glucose level indicates that the insulin is effectively
moving glucose into the cells. The goal in DKA management is a gradual reduction in
blood glucose.
Questions and Answers Updated 2026 | Complete ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Study Guide with Verified Questions,
Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology,
Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Fundamentals,
Leadership & Management, Community Health & NGN NCLEX-RN
Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating
room. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
A. Assess the surgical dressing for drainage.
B. Assess the client's airway and respiratory status.
C. Check the client's pain level on a 0 to 10 scale.
D. Monitor the client's urinary output.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client's airway and respiratory status.
Rationale: According to the ABC (airway, breathing, circulation) priority framework,
ensuring a patent airway and adequate breathing is the highest priority in the immediate
postoperative period to prevent life-threatening complications.
Question 2: A nurse is preparing to care for a client diagnosed with Clostridioides
difficile (C. diff). Which of the following infection control precautions should the
nurse implement?
A. Place the client in a negative-pressure room.
B. Wear an N95 respirator upon entering the room.
C. Wash hands with soap and water after providing care.
D. Use sterile gloves when handling the client's linens.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wash hands with soap and water after providing care.
Rationale: C. diff spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Washing
hands with soap and water is required to mechanically remove the spores and prevent
transmission.
Question 3: A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client
prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to
withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
B. Heart rate of 52/min
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Heart rate of 52/min
,Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should withhold the medication
and notify the provider if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min in an adult, as this
indicates potential digoxin toxicity.
Question 4: A client experiences sudden shortness of breath, wheezing, and facial
swelling after receiving an IV antibiotic. Which of the following medications should
the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Methylprednisolone
D. Albuterol
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Epinephrine
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic
reaction. Epinephrine is the first-line medication to reverse bronchospasm,
vasodilation, and increased capillary permeability.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is at a high risk for falls.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Keep all four side rails raised at all times.
B. Place the client's bed in the lowest position.
C. Restrict the client's fluid intake in the evening.
D. Apply a physical restraint during the night shift.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Place the client's bed in the lowest position.
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position minimizes the distance to the floor if
the client attempts to get out of bed, thereby reducing the risk of injury from a fall.
Question 6: A nurse is verifying the placement of a newly inserted nasogastric (NG)
tube. Which of the following methods is the most reliable indicator of correct
placement?
A. Auscultating a whooshing sound over the epigastrium after injecting air.
B. Measuring the pH of the aspirated gastric contents.
C. Observing the color of the aspirated fluid.
D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
Rationale: An abdominal X-ray is the gold standard and most reliable method for
confirming the initial placement of an NG tube before initiating feedings or medications.
Question 7: A client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion reports lower
back pain and chills. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
B. Administer prescribed diphenhydramine.
,C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
D. Notify the healthcare provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
Rationale: Lower back pain and chills are classic signs of an acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse must stop the transfusion immediately to prevent
further infusion of incompatible blood.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client's sacral pressure injury. The nurse notes
partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis, presenting as a
shallow open ulcer. How should the nurse stage this injury?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stage 2
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure injury is characterized by partial-thickness loss of skin
with exposed dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer or an intact serum-filled
blister.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with an IV site that is red, warm, and tender
to the touch, with a palpable cord. Which of the following interventions is
appropriate?
A. Apply a cold compress to the site.
B. Increase the IV infusion rate.
C. Remove the IV catheter and apply a warm compress.
D. Aspirate the catheter to check for blood return.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Remove the IV catheter and apply a warm compress.
Rationale: These findings indicate phlebitis. The appropriate intervention is to
discontinue the IV, remove the catheter, and apply a warm compress to promote
vasodilation and reduce inflammation.
Question 10: A nurse is applying soft wrist restraints to a confused client. Which of
the following actions is required by protocol?
A. Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed.
B. Check the client's circulation and skin integrity every 2 hours.
C. Leave the restraints on continuously for 24 hours.
D. Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check the client's circulation and skin integrity every 2
hours.
, Rationale: Restraints require frequent monitoring. The nurse must assess circulation,
sensation, movement, and skin integrity at least every 2 hours to prevent tissue damage
or nerve injury.
Question 11: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of potassium,
placing the client at high risk for hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac
dysrhythmias.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which of the following oxygen delivery methods is most
appropriate?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 8 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 24% to 28% FiO2
D. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Venturi mask at 24% to 28% FiO2
Rationale: Clients with COPD often rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe. A Venturi mask
delivers a precise, low concentration of oxygen, preventing the suppression of the
respiratory drive while correcting hypoxemia.
Question 13: A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving a continuous IV
infusion of regular insulin. Which of the following findings indicates that the
treatment is effective?
A. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL
B. Urine output of 15 mL/hr
C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
D. Presence of ketones in the urine
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL
Rationale: A decreasing blood glucose level indicates that the insulin is effectively
moving glucose into the cells. The goal in DKA management is a gradual reduction in
blood glucose.
